FMGE MCI SCREENING TEST anatomy study questions from the region”UPPER EXTREMITY”.

By Live Dr - Wed Sep 30, 11:35 am

1. Which muscle helps the triceps extend the forearm?
2. Which muscle helps the supinator supinate?
3. Which nerve emerges from the inferior margin of the supinator and travels down the posterior aspect
of the forearm?
4. What is the anatomical snuffbox? Which artery is found there?
5. What is your “funny bone”?
6. Which bone articulates with the capitulum? Which bone with the trochlea (of the humerus)?
7. Which bump provides a site of origin for the bulk of the hand and finger extensors? How about the
hand and finger flexors?
8. Name the only flexor muscle innervated by the radial nerve.
9. Name the only 2 forearm muscles innervated by the ulnar nerve.
10. Name the only 5 intrinsic hand muscles innervated by the median nerve.
11. If you wake up and realize you have no feeling or a tingly feeling (“pins and needles”) in your pinky
and the medial half of your ring finger, which nerve have you pinched?
12. Name the ligament that surrounds the head of the radius.
13. Name the ligaments on the medial and lateral sides of the elbow joint.
14. Which forearm muscle has a tendon that passes above the flexor retinaculum?
15. Which nerve is affected in carpal tunnel syndrome?
16. Which artery gives rise to the common interosseous a.?
17. Name the arm vein most commonly used for venipuncture (taking blood). Which structure deep to this
vein offers some protection to the deep vessels and nerve in this region?
18. Which vein is clearly visible in its course across Dan Majerle’s anterior shoulder?
19. Name 3 muscles that have attachment sites on the coracoid process.
20. Which structures do you find in the quadrangular (quadrilateral) space?

here r the answers 4 the above questions:

1. anconeus
2. biceps brachii
3. post. interosseous n. (continuation of the deep radial)
4. space between tensed tendons of ext. poll. brev. and long.; radial a.
5. ulnar n., which runs in ulnar groove (at medial distal end of the “humorous” bone)
6. radius, ulna
7. lateral epicondyle; medial epicondyle
8. brachioradialis
9. flex. carpi ulnaris and flex. dig. profundus (medial part)
10. thenar muscles (abd. poll. brev., flex. poll. brev., opponens poll.) and 1st and 2nd lumbricals
11. ulnar
12. annular
13. ulnar and radial collateral
14. palmaris longus
15. median
16. ulnar
17. median cubital; bicipital aponeurosis
18. cephalic
19. b. brachii (short head), coracobrachialis, pec. minor
20. axillary n., post. circumflex humeral a.

sum more ques 4m “UPPER EXTREMITY”

21. Which teres muscle medially rotates the arm (e.g. during arm wrestling)? Which laterally rotates?
22. Name the insertion of the biceps brachii m. Name the insertion of the brachialis m. Note the
important difference and think about the functional consequences.
23. Name the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff.
24. Which artery is found in the triangular space?
25. Which back muscle is considered “branchiomeric” (i.e. derived from ancestral gill arches)?
26. Name the little muscle that runs under the clavicle.
27. Which nerve passes through the scapular notch (superior notch of the scapula)? Name the 2 muscles it
innervates. Which artery passes over the superior transverse scapular ligament (which spans the
scapular notch)? (mnemonic: Army over Navy)
28. Which nerve innervates the rhomboids? Which other muscle might that nerve innervate?
29. Name the 2 muscles innervated by the axillary n.
30. Name the 3 muscles innervated by the musculocutaneous n.
31. Name the 2 muscles innervated by the lower subscapular n.
32. Name the 2 nerves that innervate the subscapularis m.
33. Name the nerve that innervates the latissimus dorsi m.
34. Name the nerve that innervates the serratus anterior m.
35. Name the 3 branches of the medial cord (not including the median and ulnar nerves).
36. Name the 4 branches of the posterior cord (not including the radial nerve).
37. Which branch of the axillary a. gives rise to 4 major branches (clavicular, acromial, deltoid , pectoral)?
38. Which branch of the axillary a. runs with the long thoracic n.?
39. Which branch of the axillary a. gives rise to the thoracodorsal and circumflex scapular arteries?
40. What’s the difference between the anatomical and surgical necks (of the humerus)?

ans 4 the above ques:

21. major, minor
22. radius; ulna
23. supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
24. circumflex scapular a.
25. trapezius, innervated by XI (a cranial nerve)
26. subclavius
27. suprascapular n.; supraspinatus & infraspinatus; suprascapular a.
28. dorsal scapular n.; levator scapulae
29. deltoid, teres minor
30. b. brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
31. teres major, subscapularis
32. upper and lower subscapular nn.
33. thoracodorsal n.
34. long thoracic n.
35. medial pect., medial brach. cut., medial antebrach. cut.
36. upper subscap., thoracodorsal, lower subscap., axillary
37. thoracoacromial a. (trunk)
38. lateral thoracic a.
39. subscapular a.
40. surgical neck is most common site of fracture in proximal humerus

gross anatomy

1- Define anisocytosis.
varying cell sizes
2- Define poikilocytosis
varying cell shapes
3- From which cells do B cells arise?
stem cells in bone marrow
4 From which cells do plasma cells differentiate?
B cells
5 How can a Nissl stain be used to differentiate microglia from oligodendroglia?
Microglia are not discernable in a Nissl stain while oligodendroglia appear as small dark nuclei with dark chromatin
6 In what type of CNS tissue (white or grey) are oligodendroglia predominant?
white matter
7 Into what cell type does a monocyte differentiate in tissues?
8 Name 2 substances produced by an eosinophil.
histiminase and arylsulfatase
9 Name the three types of leukocytic granulocytes.
basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils
10 Name the two types of mononuclear leukocytes.
lymphocytes and monocytes
11 What are 2 functions of T cell lymphocytes?
– cellular immune response – regulation of B lymphocytes and macrophages

anatomy cont..

12 What are 2 morphological features of microglia?
– small irregular nuclei – and relatively little cytoplasm
13 What are 3 examples of peripheral lymphoid tissue?
– follicles of lymph nodes – white pulp of spleen – unencapsulated lymphoid tissue
14 What are 3 functions of a macrophage?
– pagocytosis of bacteria, cell debris, and senescent red cells – scavenges damaged cells and tissues – can function as an antigen presenting cell
15 What are 3 morphological characteristics of monocytes?
– Large – Kidney-shaped nucleus – Extensive ‘frosted glass’ cytoplasm
16 What are 4 characteristics of the plasma cell morphology?
– Off center nucleus – Clock face chromatin distribution – Abundant RER – Well developed Golgi apparatus
17 What are 4 morphologic characteristics of lymphocytes?
– Round – Small – Densely staining nucleus – Small amount of pale cytoplasm
18 What are 4 substances contained within the lysosomes of neutrophils?
– hydrolytic enzymes – lysozyme – myeloperoxidase – lactoferrin
19 What are 4 types of cells into which T cells differentiate?
– cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, CD8) – helper T cells (MHCII, CD4) – suppressor T cells – delayed hypersensitivity T cells
20 What are the 5 important causes for eosinophilia in humans?
Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic process, Collagen vascular disease, and Parasites (pneumonic NAACP)
21 What are the blood cell diffenentiation names of the ACTIVE T CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
– Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell – Lymphoblast – T cell – Active T cell
22 What are the blood cell differentiation names of the ERYTHROCYTE cell line beginning with pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
– Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell – Proerythroblast – Reticulocyte – Erythrocyte
23 What are the blood cell differentiation names of the MONOCYTE cell lines beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (3)
– Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell – Mono blast – Monocyte
24 What are the blood cell differentiation names of the NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL, and BASOPHIL cell lines beginning with the myeloblast stage? (6)
– Myeloblast – Promyelocyte – Myelocyte – Metamyelocyte – Stab cell – Neutrophil, eosinophil or basophil
25 What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLASMA CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
– Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell – Lymphoblast – B cell – Plasma cell
26 What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLATELET CELL line beginning with the hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
– Pluripotento hematopoietic stem cell – Megakaryoblast – Megakaryocyte – Platelets
27 What are the components of the air-blood barrier?
– Type I pneumocyte – tight junction – endothelial cell
28 What are the steps of maturation of a B cell? (2 points)
– maturation in the marrow – migration to peripheral lymphoid tissue
29 What are the substances contained within the densly basophilic granules of the basophil? (4)
– Heparin (anticoagulant) – histamine (vasodilator) – vasoactive amines – Slow reacting substance of anaphylax
30 What are two basic morphological characteristics of neutrophils?
– multilobed nucleus – large, spherical azurophilic primary granules (lysosomes)
31 What are two important functions of a neutrophil?
– acute inflammmatory response of a cell – phagocytosis
32 What are two names for an increased number of red cells?
Erythrocytosis and polycythemia
33 What cell type closely resembles a mast cell?
34 What cranial nerves are commonly involved in an acoustic neuroma?
CN VII, VIII (association with internal acoustic meatus)
35 What disease is characterized by destruction of oligodendroglia?
Multiple sclerosis
36 What does CD stand for?
cluster of differentiation
37 What drug prevents mast cell degranulation?
Cromolyn sodium
38 What immunoglobulin can bind to the membrane of a mast cell?
39 What is a reticulocyte?
a baby (developing) erythrocyte
40 What is an important example of a Schwannoma?
Acoustic neuroma
sukanya,∂я•ρя♪ηç€ :-Ur


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