MCI Screening Test questions with correct answer collections(FMGE) Question Paper – 2005

By Live Dr - Mon Jan 19, 12:57 pm

MCI (FMGE) Question Paper – 2005
Q 1. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except: A. Median nerve. B. Flexor pollicis longus. C. Flexor carpi radialis. D. Flexor digitorum superficialis. Ans. C Q 2. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except: A. Femoral vein. B. Inguinal ligament. C. Femoral artery. D. Lacunar ligament. Ans. C Q 3. All of the following statements regarding vas deferens are true except: A. The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla. B. It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine. C. It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring. D. It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum. Ans. D Q 4. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it: A. Carries secretomotor fibers to slubmandibular gland. B. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa C. Is a branch of facial nerve. D. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. Ans. D Q 5. The type of joint between the sacrum and coccyx is a: A. Symphysis B. Syostosis

C. Synchondrosis D. Syndesmosis Ans. A Q 6. The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following geatures, except that it: A. Is the widest and most dilatable part. B. Presents a concavity posteriorly. C. Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate. D. Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall. Ans. B

Q 7. The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except; A. External iliac. B. Internal iliac. C. Superficial inguinal. D. Deep inguinal Ans. D Q 8. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except; A. Proliferation and hypertrophy. B. Calcification and ossification. C. Vasculogenesis and erosion. D. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow. Ans. D Q 9. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the: A. Entire prostate gland. B. Lateral lobes. C. Median lobe. D. Posterior lobes. Ans. C Q 10. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can

be felt anteriorly except: A. Internal iliac lymph nodes. B. Bulb of the penis. C. Prostate. D. Seminal vesicle when enlarged. Ans. A Q 11. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along: A. Upper border of the rib. B. Lower border of the rib. C. In the center of the intercostals space. D. In anterior part of intercostals space. Ans. A Q 12. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except: A. Superior thyroid artery. B. Anterior ethmoidal artery. C. Occipital artery. D. Posterior auricular artery. Ans. B

Q 13. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle: A. Interphase. B. Metaplase. C. G1 phase. D. Telophase. Ans. A

Q 14. The type of hemoglobin that has least affinity for 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is: A. Hg A. B. Hg F. C. Hg B.

D. Hg A2. Ans. B Q 15. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following except: A. Intermediate filaments. B. Actin. C. Tubulin. D. Myosin. Ans. D Q 16. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in: A. Kidney. B. Liver C. Spleen D. Bone marrow. Ans. C Q 17. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is: A. 20-40 mg/dl B. 40-70 mg/dl C. 70-90 mg/dl D. 90-110 mg/dl. Ans. B Q 18. Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling? A. CO2 B. O2 C. NO D. N2 Ans. C Q 19. Osteoclasts are inhibited by: A. Parathyroid hormone. B. Calcitonin. C. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. D. Tumor necrosis factor. Ans. B

Q 20. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as: A. Dissolved CO2. B. Carbonic acid C. Carbamino-hemoglobin D. Bicarbonate. Ans. D Q 21. Both vitamin K and C are involved in: A. The synthesis of clotting factors. B. Post translational modifications. C. Antioxidant mechanisms. D. The microsomal hydroxylation reactions. Ans. B Q 22. The main site of bicarbonate reabsorption is: A. Proximal convoluted tubule. B. Distal convoluted tubule. C. Cortical collecting duct. D. Medullary collecting duct. Ans. A Q 23. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in: A. Cell motility. B. Receptor-mediated endocytosis. C. Exocytosis. D. Cell shape. Ans. B Q 24. The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for the stimulus of: A. Color contrast. B. Luminance contrast. C. Temporal grequency. D. Saccadic eye movements. Ans. A Q 25. The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project to the following layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus:

A. Layers 2, 3 & 5. B. Layers 1, 2 & 6. C. Layers 1, 4 & 6. D. Layers 4, 5 & 6. Ans. C Q 26. All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin except those found in: A. Hepatic circulation B. Cutaneous circulation C. Cerebral microcirculation. D. Renal circulation. Ans. C Q 27. SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it: A. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously. B. Has rich sympathetic innervations. C. Has poor cholinergic innervations. D. Generates impulses at the highest rate. Ans. D Q 28. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is: A. Sweating B. Vasodilatation. C. Decrease heat production. D. Non-shivering thermogenesis. Ans. B Q 29. All of the following factors normally increase the length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibres except: A. Increased venous tone. B. Increased total blood volume. C. Increased negative intrathoracic pressure. D. Lying-to-standing change in posture. Ans. D Q 30. The vasodilatation produced by carbon dioxide is maximum in one of the following: A. Kidney.

B. Brain. C. Liver. D. Heart. Ans. B Q 31. Which one of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in the tubules? A. The bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to Na+ reabsorption. B. Majority of facultative reabsorption occurs in proximal tubule. C. Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent. D. 20% of water is always reabsorbed irrespective of water balance. Ans. A Q 32. Urinary concentrating ability of the kidney is increased by: A. ECF volume contraction. B. Increase in RBF. C. Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity. D. Increase in CFR. Ans. A Q 33. Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the: A. Arteries. B. Arterioles. C. Capillaries. D. Venules. Ans. B Q 34. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs? A. Anaemia. B. CO poisoning. C. Moderate exercise. D. Hypoventilation. Ans. D Q 35. With which one of the following lower motor neuron lesions are associated?

A. Flaccid paralysis. B. Hyperactive stretch reflex.

C. Spasticity. D. Muscular incorrdination. Ans. A Q 36. Which of the following statements can be regarded as primary action of inhibin? A. It inhibits secretion of prolactin. B. It stimulates synthesis of estradiol. C. It stimulates secretion of TSH. D. It inhibits secretion of FSH. Ans. D

Q 37. The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is: A. LD-1 B. LD-2 C. LD-3 D. LD-5 Ans. A Q 38. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except: A. Adrenalin B. Growth hormone. C. Insulin D. Thyroxine. Ans. D Q 39. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation, inbibits the enzyme: A. Glucokinase. B. Hexokinase. C. Enolase. D. Glucose-6-phosphatase. Ans. C Q 40. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known

as: A. Ligases. B. Oxido-reductases. C. Transferases. D. Dipeptidases. Ans. C Q 41. The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is: A. Lysine. B. Histidine. C. Tyrosine. D. Proline. Ans. D

Q 42. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft it is? A. Xenograft B. Autograft C. Allograft D. Isograft. Ans. D Q 43. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as: A. Transduction. B. Transformation. C. Transcription. D. Integration. Ans. A Q 44. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by: A. ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory protein. B. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase. C. Activation of GTPase. D. Active absorption of NaCl.

Ans. A Q 45. HIV can be detected and confirmed by: A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B. Reverse transcriptase – PCR C. Real time PCR D. Mimic PCR. Ans. B Q 46. With reference to infections with Escherichia coli the following are true except: A. Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated with pwesistent diarrhoea. B. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome. C. Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease similar to salmonellosis. D. Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a common cause of travelers diarrhoea. Ans. C Q 47. The following statements are true regarding melioidosis except: A. It is caused by Burkholderia mallei. B. The agent is a grain negative aerobic bacteria. C. Bipolar staining of the aetiological agent is seen with methylene blue stain.

D. The most common form of melioidosis is pulmonary infection. Ans. A Q 48. The following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis except: A. Escherichia coli. B. Streptococcus agalactiae. C. Neisseria meningitidis. D. Listeria monocytogenes. Ans. C Q 49. All of the following Vibrio sp. are halophilic, except: A. V. cholerae. B. V. parahaemolyticus. C. V. alginolyticus. D. V. fluvialis.

Ans. A Q 50. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except: A. Neisseria meningitides. B. Salmonella typhi. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Legionella pneumophila. Ans. C Q 51. The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by: A. Grams stain. B. India ink preparation. C. Giemsa stain. D. Methanamine-silver stain. Ans. B Q 52. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except: A. Tissue culture. B. Embryonated eggs. C. Animals. D. Chemicaly defined media. Ans. D Q 53. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes that: A. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents. B. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH. C. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period. D. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea. Ans. A Q 54. An army jawan posted in a remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104° and pulse was 70 per mibn. He had an erythematous lesion of F about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial

disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-Felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting: A. High OX-2. B. High OX-19. C. High OX-K. D. High OX-19 and OX-2. Ans. C Q 55. Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is associated with: A. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) B. X-linked agammaglobulinemia. C. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy. D. Chronic granulomatous disease. Ans. A Q 56. Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick? A. Japanese encephalitis. B. Dengue fever. C. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD). D. Yellow fever. Ans. C Q 57. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except:

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B. Legionella pneumophila. C. Human Corona virus. D. Klebsiella pneumoniae. Ans. D Q 58. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum? A. IgG1. B. IgG2. C. IgG3. D. IgG4. Ans. A

Q 59. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with the following except: A. Endemic trachoma. B. Inclusion conjunctivitis. C. Lymphogranuloma venereum. D. Community acquired pneumonia. Ans. D Q 60. The following statements are true regarding Clostridium perfringens except: A. It is commonest cause of gas gangrene. B. It is normally present in human faeces. C. The principal toxin of C.perfringens is the alpha toxin. D. Gas gangrene producing strains of C.perfringens produce heat resistant spores. Ans. D Q 61. The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Streptococcus agalactiae. C. Cryptococcus neoformans. D. Listeria monocytogenes. Ans. C Q 62. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e., rats, ricefields, and rainfall is: A. Leptospirosis. B. Plague. C. Melioidosis. D. Rodent-bite fever. Ans. A Q 63. A child was diagnosed to be suffering from diarrhoea due to Campylobacter jejuni. Which of the following will be the correct environmental conditions of incubation of the culture plates of the stool sample: A. Temperature of 42° and microaerophilic. C B. Temperature of 42° and 10% carbon dioxide. C

C. Temperature of 37° and microaerophilic. C D. Temperature of 37° and 10% carbon dioxide. C Ans. A Q 64. Which one of the following statements is true regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae: A. Fifteen serovars have been identified as human pathogens. B. Mode of transmission is by the airborne bird excreta. C. The cytoplasmic inclusions present in the sputum specimen are rich in glycogen. D. The group specific antigen is responsible for the production of complement fixing antibodies. Ans. D Q 65. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins? A. IgA. B. IgG. C. IgM. D. IgE. Ans. D

Q 66. An example of a tumour suppressor gene is: A. Myc. B. Fos. C. Ras. D. Rb. Ans. D Q 67. The following is not a feature of malignant transformation by cultured cells: A. Increased cell density. B. Increased requirement for growth factors. C. Alterations of cytoskeletal structures.

D. Loss of anchorage. Ans. B Q 68. A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is: A. Ames test. B. Redox test. C. Bacteriophage. D. Gene splicing. Ans. A Q 69. The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is known as: A. Kiel classification. B. REAL classification. C. WHO classification. D. Rappaport classification. Ans. B Q 70. All of the following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except: A. Presence of interstitial inflammation. B. Predominance of alveolar exudates. C. Bronchiolitis. D. Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchiolar wall. Ans. B Q 71. Aschoff’s nodules are seen in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis. B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis. C. Rheumatic carditis. D. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis. Ans. C Q 72. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by: A. Type I pneumoncytes. B. Type II pneumocytes. C. Clara cells. D. Bronchila epithelial cells. Ans. B

Q 73. Which one of the following conditions commonly predisposes to colonic carcinoma? A. Ulcerative colitis. B. Crohn’s disease. C. Diverticular disease. D. Ischaemic colitis. Ans. A Q 74. Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of the following except: A. Malignant hypertension. B. Polyarteritis nodosa. C. Diabetic glomerulosclerosis. D. Aschoff’s nodule. Ans. C Q 75. All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except: A. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix. B. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane. D. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum. Ans. A Q 76. Which of the following statements pertaining to leukemia is correct? A. Blasts of acute myeloid leukemia are typically sudan black negative. B. Blasts of acute lymphoblastic leukemia are typically myeloperoxidase positive. C. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase score is characteristically seen in blastic phase of chronic myeloid leukemia. D. Tartarate resistant acid phosphatase positivity is typically seen in hairy cell leukemiA. Ans. D Q 77. In which of the following conditions bilateral contracted kidneys are characteristically seen? A. Amyloidosis. B. Diabetes mellitus.

C. Rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis. D. Benign nephrosclerosis. Ans. D Q 78. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except: A. Vasodilation. B. Stasis of blood. C. Increased vascular permeability. D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure. Ans. D Q 79. The subtype of Hodgkin’s disease, which is histogenetically distinct from all the other subtypes, is: A. Lymphocyte predominant. B. Nodular sclerosis. C. Mixed cellularity. D. Lymphocyte depleted. Ans. A Q 80. In apoptosis, Apaf-1 is activated by release of which of the following substances from the mitochondria? A. Bcl-2 B. Bax. C. Bcl-XL D. Cytochrome C. Ans. D Q 81. Which type of amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein? A. Familial Mediterranean fever. B. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy. C. Dialysis associated amyloidosis. D. Prion protein associated amyloidosis. Ans. B Q 82. In familial Mediterranean fever, the gene encoding the following protein undergoes mutation:

A. Pyrin. B. Perforin. C. Atrial natriuretic factor. D. Immunoglobulin light chain. Ans. A Q 83. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Patinets with IgD myeloma may present with no evident M-spike on serum electrophoresis. B. A diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia can be made if circulating peripheral blood plasmablasts comprise 14% of peripheral blood white cells in a patient with 109/L.´ 109/L and platelet count of 88 ´white blood cell count of 11 C. In smoldering myeloma plasma cells constitute 10-30% of total bone marrow cellularity. D. In a patient with multiple myeloma, a monoclonal light chain may be detected in both serum and urine. Ans. B Q 84. In-situ DNA nick end labeling can quantitate: A. Fraction of cells in apoptotic pathways. B. Fraction of cells in S phase. C. p53 gene product. D. bcr/abl gene. Ans. A Q 85. Which one of the following stains is specific for amyloid? A. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) B. Alzerian red. C. Congo red. D. Von-Kossa. Ans. C Q 86. Which one of the following diseases characteristically causes fatty change in liver? A. Hepatitis B virus infection. B. Wilson’s disease. C. Hepatitis C virus infection.

D. Chronic alcoholism. Ans. D Q 87. A 48-year-old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlared and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 40 x 109/L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lumphoid cells were positive for CD19, CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were negative for CD79B and FMC-7. The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effeacement of lymph node architecture by: A. A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers. B. A monomorphic lymphoid proliferation with a nodular pattern. C. A predominantly follicular pattern. D. A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate. Ans. D Q 88. Which one of the following is not a feature of liver histology in non cirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF). A. Fibrosis in and around the portal tracts. B. Thrombosis of the medium and small portal vein branches. C. Non specific inflammatory cell infiltrates in the portal tracts. D. Bridging fibrosis. Ans. D

Q 89. A highly ionized drug: A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney. B. Can cross the placental barrier easily. C. Is well absorbed from the intestine. D. Accumulates in the cellular lipids.

Ans. A Q 90. Which one of the following drugs is ‘topoisomerase 1 inhibitor’? A. Doxorubicin. B. Irinotecan. C. Etoposide. D. Vincristine. Ans. B Q 91. The following drugs have significant drug interaction with digoxin, except: A. Cholestyramine. B. Thiazide diuretics. C. Quinidine. D. Amlodipine. Ans. D Q 92. One of the following is not true about nesiritide: A. It is a brain natriuretic peptide analogue. B. It is used in acutely decompensated heart failure. C. It has significant oral absorption. D. It has a short half-life. Ans. C Q 93. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by: A. Anticholinergics. B. Levodopa. C. Selegiline. D. Amantadine. Ans. A Q 94. Which one of the following is used in therapy of toxoplasmosis? A. Artensenuate. B. Thiacetazone. C. Ciprofloxacin. D. Pyrimethamine. Ans. D Q 95. The following statements regarding finasteride are true except:

A. It is used in the medical treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) B. Impotence is well documented after its use. C. It blocks the conversion of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone. D. It is a 5-a reductase inhibitor. Ans. C Q 96. Eternacept acts by one of the following mechanisms: A. By blocking tumor necorosis factor. B. By blocking bradykinin synthesis. C. By inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase-2. D. By blocking lipoxygenase. Ans. A Q 97. In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of: A. Ceftriaxone. B. Phenobarbitone. C. Ampicillin. D. Sulphonamide. Ans. D Q 98. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except: A. Sulphacetamide. B. Sulphadiazine. C. Silver sulphadiazine. D. Mafenide. Ans. B Q 99. Oculogyric crisis is know to be produced by all of the following drugs except: A. Trifluoperazine. B. Atropine. C. Perchlorperazine. D. Perphenazine. Ans. B Q 100. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine? A. Proproanolol.

B. Sumatriptan. C. Domperidone. D. Ergotamine. Ans. A Q 101. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is: A. Phenobarbitone. B. Flumazenil. C. Beta-Carboline. D. Gabapentin. Ans. C Q 102. The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is: A. Tetracyclines. B. Polypeptide antibiotics. C. Fluoroquinolones. D. Macrolides. Ans. D Q 103. With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?

A. Histamine receptors. B. Bradykinin receptors. C. Adenosine receptors. D. Imidazoline receptors. Ans. C Q 104. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible: A. Amoxicillin. B. Penicillin G. C. Piperacillin. D. Cloxacillin. Ans. D Q 105. Which one of the following is best associated with lumefantrine? A. Antimycobacterial. B. Antifungal.

C. Antimalarial. D. Antiamoebic. Ans. C Q 106. Which one of the following drugs increases gastro-intestinal motility? A. Glycopyrrolate. B. Atropine. C. Neostigmine. D. Fentanyl. Ans. C Q 107. Nevirapine is a: A. Protease inhibitor. B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. D. Fusion inhibitor. Ans. C

Q 108. In a firearm injury, there is burning, blackening, toattooing around the wound, along with cherry red colour of the surrounding tissues and is cruciate in shape, the injury is: A. Close shot entry. B. Close contact exit. C. Contact shot entry. D. Distant shot entry. Ans. C Q 109. In methyl alcohol poisoning there is CNS depression cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are produced due to: A. Formaldehyde and formic acid. B. Acetaldehyde. C. Pyridine. D. Acetie acid.

Ans. A Q 110. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination except: A. Nail clippings. B. Hair samples. C. Bone biopsy. D. Blood sample. Ans. D Q 111. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diatom? A. Diatoms are aquatic unicellular plant. B. Diatoms has an extracellular coat composed of magnesium. C. Acid diagestion technique is used to extract diatoms. D. Presence of diatoms in the femoral bone marrow is an indication of antemartem inhalation of water. Ans. B Q 112. In India, magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except: A. Exhumation cases. B. Dowry deaths within 5 years of marriage. C. Murder cases. D. Death of a person in police custody. Ans. C Q 113. At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except: A. Characteristic bitter lemon smell. B. Congested organs. C. The skin may be pinkish or cherry red in colour. D. Erosion and haemorrhages in oesophagus and stomach. Ans. A Q 114. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is: A. Cementum apposition. B. Transparency of root. C. Attrition. D. Root resorption.

Ans. B Q 115. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is: A. 7 years. B. 12 years. C. 16 years. D. 21 years. Ans. A Q 116. The most reliable method of identification of an individual is: A. Dactylography. B. Scars. C. Anthropometry. D. Handwriting. Ans. A Q 117. The most common pattern of finger print is: A. Arch. B. Loop. C. Whorl. D. Composite. Ans. B

Q 118. ‘Endemic disease’ means that a disease: A. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy. B. Is constantly present in a given population group. C. Exhibits seasonal pattern. D. Is prevalent among animals. Ans. B Q 119. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease? A. Cause specific death rate. B. Case fatality rate.

C. Standardized mortality ratio. D. Five year survival. Ans. B Q 120. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true? A. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD. B. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD. C. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD. D. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day. Ans. B Q 121. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of: A. Tetracycline. B. Co-trimoxazole. C. Doxycycline. D. Furazolidone. Ans. C Q 122. All of the following statements are true about congenital rubella except: A. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth. B. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months. C. Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract. D. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects. Ans. D Q 123. The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is: A. 1800. B. 2100. C. 2300. D. 2900. Ans. D Q 124. All of the following methods are antilarval measures except: A. Intermittent irrigation.

B. Paris green. C. Gamusia affinis. D. Malathion. Ans. D Q 125. All of the following are true about the herd immunity for infectious diseases except: A. It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals. B. It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase. C. It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts. D. In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual. Ans. B Q 126. The best indicator for monitoring the impact of iodine deficiency disorder control programme is: A. Prevalence of goiter among school children. B. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women. C. Neonatal hypothyroidism. D. Iodine level in soil. Ans. C Q 127. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts: A. Yellow. B. Black. C. Red. D. Blue. Ans. A Q 128. WHO defines adolescent age between: A. 10-19 years of age. B. 10-14 years of age. C. 10-25 years of age. D. 9-14 years of age. Ans. A Q 129. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain

disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows. Test result Disease Present Absent + 180 400 – 20 400 What is the percent prevalence of disease? A. 0.20 B. 2 C. 18 D. 20 Ans. D Q 130. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except: A. Phosphatase test. B. Standard plate count. C. Coliform count. D. Methylene blue reduction test. Ans. D Q 131. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm: A. 27 B. 30 C. 33 D. 36 Ans. B Q 132. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is: A. Bleeding. B. Pain. C. Pelvic infection. D. Ectopic pregnancy. Ans. A Q 133. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except:

A. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity. B. Give ARV. C. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage. D. Immediately wash wound with soap and water. Ans. C Q 134. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from: A. Very severe disease. B. Severe pneumonia. C. Pneumonia. D. No pneumonia. Ans. A Q 135. The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India? A. 1998. B. 2000. C. 2001. D. 2003. Ans. B Q 136. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in: A. 1996 B. 1993 C. 1998 D. 1994 Ans. D Q 137. Which one of the following is not source of manager’s power? A. Reward B. Coercive C. Legitimate. D. Efferent.

Ans. D Q 138. The standard normal distribution: A. Is skewed to the left. B. Has mean = 1.0 C. Has standard deviation = 0.0 D. Has variance = 1.0 Ans. D Q 139. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 1/min: A. About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min. B. The girls have healthy lungs. C. About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 1/min. D. All the PEFR must be less than 340 l/min. Ans. A Q 140. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so: A. Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B). B. Prob (A and B) = Prob (A). Prob (B). C. Prob (A) = Prob (B). D. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1. Ans. D Q 141. Total cholesterol level = a + b (calorie intake) + C (physical activity) + d (body mass index); is an example of: A. Simple linear regression. B. Simple curvilinear regression. C. Multiple linear regression. D. Multiple logistic regression. Ans. C Q 142. The Hb level in healthy woman has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl: A. 9.0 B. 10.0 C. 2.0 D. 1.0

Ans. D Q 143. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by: A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Positive predictivity D. Negative predictivity. Ans. D Q 144. Infant mortality does not include: A. Early neonatal mortality. B. Perinatal mortality. C. Post neonatal mortality. D. Late neonatal mortality. Ans. B Q 145. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r=0.90, p=0.01) between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation coefficient observed? A. Since there is a high correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other. B. A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol. C. A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol. D. About 80% of the variation in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice a versa. Ans. A Q 146. The most common cancer affecting Indian urban women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai is: A. Cervical cancer. B. Ovarian cancer. C. Breast cancer. D. Uterine cancer.

Ans. C

Q 147. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are: A. Gram positive organisms. B. Gram negative organisms. C. Mycoplasma. D. Virus infections. Ans. B Q 148. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes: A. Increased RV/TLC. B. Reduced FEV1/FVC. C. Reduced FEV25-75. D. Increased FRC. Ans. A Q 149. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux? A. Ondansetron. B. Metoclopramide. C. Sodium citrate. D. Atropine. Ans. C Q 150. Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy? A. It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands. B. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids. C. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5 mg, prednisolone daily. D. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks. Ans. C Q 151. A 30-year-old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right

upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left lside. On examination, BP was 160/140 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed a Hb-12 gm, TLC-12000 cumm, platelets 4,30,000, ESR-49 mm. Urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10-15/ hpf with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Polyarteritis nodosa. B. Systemic LUPUS erythematosus. C. Wegener’s granulomatosis. D. Mixed cryoglobulemia. Ans. A Q 152. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption? A. Giardia lamblia. B. Ascaris lumbricoides. C. Necater americana. D. Ancylostoma duodenale. Ans. A Q 153. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except: A. Hyperparathyroidism. B. Steroid use. C. Fluorosis. D. Thyrotoxicosis. Ans. C Q 154. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all of the following except: A. Sarcoidosis. B. Silicosis. C. Berylliosis. D. Bronchogenic carcinoma. Ans. D Q 155. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by: A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) B. Parthyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)

C. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) D. Calcitonin. Ans. B Q 156. All of the following are the causes of relative polycythemia except: A. Dehydration. B. Dengue haemorrhagic fever. C. Gaisbock syndrome. D. High altitude. Ans. D Q 157. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG, except: A. Early repolarization variant. B. Constrictive pericarditis. C. Ventricular aneurysm. D. Prinzmetal angina. Ans. B Q 158. 5′-Nucleotidase activity is increased in: A. Bone diseases. B. Prostate cancer. C. Chronic renal failure. D. Cholestatic disorders. Ans. D Q 159. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because: A. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen. #NAME? C. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues. D. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta. Ans. C Q 160. Cluster headache is characterized by all except: A. Affects predominantly females. B. Unilateral headache. C. Onset typically in 20-50 years of life. D. Associated with conjunctival congestion. Ans. A

Q 161. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is: A. Elevated serum ACh-receptor binding antibodies. B. Repetitive nerve stimulation test. C. Positive edrophonium test. D. Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography. Ans. A

Q 162. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except: A. Myelopathy. B. Optic atrophy. C. Peripheral neuropathy. D. Myopathy. Ans. D Q 163. EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. B. Locked-in state. C. Creutzfoldt-Jackob disease. D. Hepatic encephalopathy. Ans. B Q 164. All of the following are neurologic channelopathies except: A. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis. B. Episodic ataxia type 1. C. FAMILIAL hemiplegic migraine. D. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1. Ans. D Q 165. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite? A. Taenia solium. B. Acanthamoeba. C. Naegleria. D. Trichinella spiralis. Ans. D Q 166. A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He

started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute aortic dissection. B. Acute myocardial infarction. C. Rupture of the esophagus. D. Acute pulmonary embolism. Ans. A Q 167. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration. B. Picks disease. C. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease. D. Alzheimer’s disease. Ans. A Q 168. Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except: a. Thrombocytopenia. B. Small-vessel vasculitis. C. Disseminated gonococcal infection. D. Acute meningococcemia. Ans. A Q 169. A 59-year-old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is: A. Mitral valve repair of replacement. B. No treatment. C. ACE inhibitor therapy. D. Digoxin and diuretic therapy. Ans. A Q 170. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is: A. Dual energy X-ray absorptimetry.

B. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry. C. Ultrasound. D. Quantiative computed tomography. Ans. A Q 171. All of the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except: A. Raised protein levels. B. Low chloride levels. C. Cob web formation. D. Raised sugar levels. Ans. D Q 172. Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver diseae? A. Aminotransaminase. B. Alkaline phosphatase. C. Bilirubin. D. Albumin. Ans. D Q 173. All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus except: A. Multiple sclerosis. B. Head injury. C. Histiocytosis. D. Viral encephalitis. Ans. A Q 174. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to: A. Cavernous sinus. B. Apex of orbit. C. Brainstem. D. Base of skull. Ans. A Q 175. Which one of the following is the most common location of hypertensive

bleed in the brain ? A. Putamen/external capsule. B. Pons. C. Ventricles. D. Lobar white matter. Ans. A Q 176. In which of the following diseases, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure? A. Prostate cancer. B. Lung cancer. C. Colon cancer. D. Ovarian cancer. Ans. C Paediatrics Q 177. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with: A. IgM antibodies. B. Lysozyme. C. Mast cells. D. IgA antibodies. Ans. D Q 178. Study the following carefully: Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is: A. Autosomal recessive type. B. Autosomal dominant type. C. X linked dominant type. D. X linked recessive type. Ans. D Q 179. Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established by: A. NESTROFT test. B. HbA1c estimation. C. Hb electrophoresis. D. Target cells in peripheral smear. Ans. C

Q 180. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on: A. Cord blood. B. 24 hours after birth. C. 48 hours after birth. D. 72 hours after birth. Ans. D Q 181. A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most likely to show: A. Posterior urethral valves. B. Vesicoureteric reflux. C. Neurogenic bladder. D. Renal and ureteric calculi. Ans. B Q 182. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except: A. Hemolytic anemia. B. Posterior column abnormalities. C. Cerebellar ataxia. D. Autonomic dysfunction. Ans. D Q 183. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as: A. Genomic imprinting. B. Mosaicism. C. Anticipation. D. Non penetrance. Ans. A Q 184. The appropriate approach to a neonate presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 of life is: A. Administration of vitamin K. B. Investigation for bleeding disorder. C. No specific therapy. D. Administration of 10ml/kg of fresh frozen plasma over 4 hours. Ans. C

Q 185. Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia? A. Hydrocortisone. B. Prednisolone. C. Fludrocortisone. D. Dexamethasone. Ans. D Q 186. The coagulation profile in a 13-year-old girl with menorrhagia having von-Willebrands disease is: A. Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT. B. Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT. C. Prolongation of both PT and PTT. D. Prolongation of thrombin time. Ans. A Q 187. The chances of having an unaffected baby, when both parents have achondroplasia, are: A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100% Ans. B Q 188. All of the following therapies may be required in a 1 hour-old infant with severe birth asphyxia except: A. Glucose B. Dexamethasone. C. Calcium gluconate. D. Normal saline. Ans. B Q 189. The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is: A. Takayasu disease. B. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease) C. Henoch Schonlein purpura. D. Polyarteritis nodosa.

Ans. C Q 190. A four year old boy was admitted with a history of abdominal pain and fever for two months, maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On examination, liver and spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His hemoglobin was 109/L, which´ 109/L and total leukocyte count 70 ´10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 included 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular marrow comprising 45% blasts and 34% eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors. The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific esterase and were positive for CD19, CD10, CD22 and CD20. Which one of the following statements in not true about this disease? A. Eosinophils are not of the neoplastic clone. B. t(5:14) rearrangement may be detected in blasts. C. Peripheral blood wosinophilia may normalize with chemotherapy. D. Inv (16) is often detected in the blasts and the eosinophils. Ans. D Q 191. kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristically most likely presents features of: A. Thrombotic microangiopathy. B. Proliferative glomerulonephritis. C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. D. Minimal change disease. Ans. A Q 192. One of the intestinal enzymes that is generally deficient in children following an attack of severe infectious enteritis is: A. Lactase. B. Trypsin. C. Lipase. D. Amylase. Ans. A Q 193. A new born presented with bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full-thickness biopsy of the rectum was carried out. Which one of the following rectal biopsy findings is most likely to be present?

A. Fibrosis of submucosa. B. Hyalinisation of the muscular coat. C. Thickened muscularis propria. D. Lack of ganglion cells. Ans. D Q 194. Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all except: A. Return of left ventricle & right ventricle to normal size. B. Pulmonary veins not distended. C. Pruning of peripheral pulmonary arteries. D. Dilatation of central pulmonary arteries. Ans. A Q 195. Which of the following is the most common renal cystic disease in infants is? A. Polycystic kidnesy. B. Simple renal cyst. C. Unilateral renal dysplasia. D. Calyceal cyst. Ans. C Q 196. The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is: A. Supracardiac B. Infracardiac. C. Mixed. D. Cardiac. Ans. A Q 197. The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is: A. Trauma. B. Tuberculosis. C. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis. D. Interstitial nephritis. Ans. C Q 198. Which one of the following is the common cause of congential hydrocephalus is? A. Craniosynostosis.

B. Intra uterine meningitis. C. Aqueductal stenosis. D. Malformations of great Vein of Galen . Ans. C Q 199. In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by: A. Ultrasonography. B. IVU. C. DTPA renogram. D. Creatinine clearance. Ans. C Q 200. The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is: A. Malignant teratoma. B. Neuroblastoma. C. Wilms’ tumor. D. Hepatoblastoma. Ans. B Q 201. The most common presentation of a child with Wilms’ tumor is: A. An asymptomatic abdominal mass. B. Haematuria. C. Hypertension. D. Hemoptysis due to pulmonary secondary. Ans. A

Q 202. A 40-year-old male, with history of daily alcohol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital emergency room with acute onset of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not recognizing family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for having missed the alcohol drink since 2 days, Examination reveals increased blood pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment and insight. He is most likely to be suffering from:

A. Alcoholic hallucinosis. B. Delirium tremens. C. Wernicke encephalopathy. D. Korsakoff’s psychosis. Ans. B Q 203. A 45-year-male with a history of alcohol dependence presents with confusion nystagmus and ataxia. Examination reveals 6th cranial nerve weakness. He is most likely to be suffering from: A. Korsakoff’s psychosis. B. Wernicke encephalopathy. C. De Clerambault syndrome. D. Delirium tremens. Ans. B Q 204. A 25-year-old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies: A. Exposure and response prevention. B. Systematic desensitization. C. Assertiveness training. D. Sensate focusing. Ans. A Q 205. An 18 year old boy came to the Psychiatry OPD with a complaint of feeling changed from inside. He described himself as feeling strange as if he is different from his normal self. He was very tense and anxious yet could not point out the precise change in him. This phenomena is best called as: A. Delusional mood. B. Depersonalization. C. Autochthonous delusion. D. Over valued idea. Ans. B Q 206. The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that:

A. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin. B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia. C. The former are available as parenteral preparations. D. The latter cause substantial sedation. Q 207. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of: A. Muscarininc acetylcholine receptors. B. Serotonergic receptors. C. Dopaminergic receptors. D. GABA receptors. Q 208. All of the following are hallucinogens, except: A. LSD B. Phenylcyclidine. C. Mescaline. D. Methylphendate. Ans. D Q 209. An 18 year old student complains of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches. The most appropriate clinical approach would be to: A. Leave him as normal adolescent problem. B. Rule out depression. C. Rule out migraine. D. Rule out an oppositional defiant disorder. Ans. B Q 210. Perseveration is: A. Persistent and inappropriate repetition of the same thoughts. B. When a patient feels very distressed about it. C. Characteristic of schizophrenia. D. Characteristic of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). Ans. A Q 211. One of the following usually differentiates hysterical symptoms from hypochondriacal symptoms: A. Symptoms do not normally reflect understandable physiological or pathological mechanism.

B. Physical symptoms are prominent which are not explained by organic factors. C. Personality traits are significant. D. Symptoms run a chronic course. Ans. A Dermatology Q 212. All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except: A. Selenium sulphide. B. Ketoconazole. C. Griseofulvin. D. Clotrimazole. Ans. C Q 213. A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Erythema annulare centrifugum. B. Granuloma annulare. C. Annular lichen planus. D. Tinea cruris. Ans. D Q 214. A 16-year-old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a callarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Pityriasis versicolor. B. Pityriasis alba. C. Pityriasis rosea. D. Pityriasis rubra pilaris. Ans. C Q 215. The only definite indication for giving systemic corticosteroids in pustular PSORIASIS is: A. Psoriatic enythroderma with pregnancy.

B. PSORIASIS in a patient with alcoholic cirrhosis. C. Moderate arthritis. D. Extensive lesions. Ans. D Q 216. A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is: A. Acne vulgaris. B. Rosacea. C. Systemic LUPUS erythematosus. D. Polymorphic light eruption. Ans. B Q 217. An 8-year-old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an illdefined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Pityriasis alba. B. Indeterminate leprosy. C. Morphoca. D. Calcium deficiency. Ans. B Q 218. A 27-year-old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Behcet’s syndrome. B. Herpes genitalis. C. Fixed drug eruption. D. Pemphigus vulgaris. Ans. C

Q 219. According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS) a verbal score of 1 indicates:

A. No response. B. Inappropriate words. C. Incomprehensible sounds. D. Disoriented response. Ans. A Q 220. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of: A. Buccal mucosa. B. Lip. C. Tongue. D. Palate. Ans. B Q 221. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen? A. Adenocarcinoma. B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma. C. Basal cell Adenoma. D. Squamous cell carcinoma. Ans. B Q 222. In which one of the following conditions the sialography is contraindicated? A. Ductal calculus. B. Chronic parotitis. C. Acute parotitis. D. Recurrrent sialadenitis. Ans. C Q 223. The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is: A. Sphenoid sinus. B. Frontal sinus. C. Cribriform plate. D. Tegmen tympani. Ans. C Q 224. Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes?

A. Fibrosarcoma. B. Osteosarcoma. C. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma. D. Alveolar soft part sarcoma. Ans. C Q 225. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of : A. Intermittent claudication. B. Distal ischaemia affecting the SKIN of the toes. C. Arteriovenous fistula D. Back pain. Ans. B Q 226. A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following: A. Breast abscess. B. Fibroadenoma. C. Duct papilloma. D. Fat necrosis of breast. Ans. C Q 227. The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is: A. Ipsilateral papillary dilatation. B. Contralateral papillary dilatation. C. Altered mental status. D. Hemiparesis. Ans. A Q 228. In which of the following conditions splenectomy is not useful? A. Hereditary spherocytosis. B. Porphyria. C. Thalassemia. D. Sickle cell disease with large spleen . Ans. None/B Q 229. The following is ideal for the treatment with injection of sclerosing agents: A. External hemorrhoids.

B. Internal hemorrhoids. C. Prolapsed hemorrhoids. D. Strangulated hemorrhoids. Ans. B Q 230. In which of the following locations, carcinoid tumor is most common? A. Esophagus. B. Stomach. C. Small bowel. D. Appendix. Ans. C Q 231. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochromocytoma may be associated with: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid. B. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid. C. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid. D. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid. Ans. A Q 232. Gardener’s syndrome is a rare herediatary disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by: A. Polyposis colon, cancer thyroid, SKIN tumours. B. Polyposis in jejunum, pituitary adenoma and SKIN tumours. C. Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumorus in the SKIN . D. Polyposis of gastrointestinal tract, cholangiocarcinoma and SKIN tumours. Ans. C Q 233. All of the following are true for patients of ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), except: A. They may develop biliary cirrhosis. B. May have raised alkaline phosphatase. C. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma. D. PSC reverts after a total colectomy. Ans. D Q 234. The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is:

A. Oesophagitis. B. Aspiration pneumonitis. C. Volvulus. D. Esophageal stricture. Ans. A Q 235. Patients of rectovaginal fistula should be initially treated with: A. Colostomy. B. Primary repair. C. Colporrhaphy. D. Anterior resection. Ans. A Q 236. Which of the following catheter materials is most suited for long-term use is? A. Latex. B. Silicone. C. Rubber. D. Polyurethane. Ans. D Q 237. Which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy? A. Dorsal venous complex. B. Inferior vesical pedicle. C. Superior vesical pedicle. D. Seminal vesicular artery. Ans. A Q 238. The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosing ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is: A. X-ray KUB region. B. Ultrasonogram. C. Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen. D. Contrast enhanced CT scan of the abdomen. Ans. C Q 239. Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular

tumors? A. AFP. B. LDH. C. HCG. D. CEA. Ans. D

Q 240. A young woman met with an accident and had mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 FRACTURE dislocation. Which of the following is the best line of management? A. Immediate anterior decompression. B. Cervical traction followed by instrument fixation. C. Hard cervical collar and bed rest cervical laminectomy. D. Cervical laminectomy. Ans. B Q 241. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes’ disease? A. Plain X-ray. B. Ultrasonography (US). C. Computed tomography (CT). D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Ans. D Q 242. Neuronal degeneration is seen in all of the following except: A. Crush nerve injury. B. Fetal development. C. Senescence. D. Neuropraxia. Ans. D Q 243. In Klippel-Feil syndrome, the patient has all of the following clinical features except: A. Low hair line.

B. Bilateral neck webbing. C. Bilateral shortness of sternomastoid muscles. D. Gross limitations of neck movements. Ans. C Q 244. The most common sequelae of tuberculous spondylitis in an adolescent is: A. Fibrous ankylosis. B. Bony ankylosis. C. Pathological dislocation. D. Chronic OSTEOMYELITIS . Ans. B Q 245. In radionuclide imaging the most useful radio- pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is: A. Gallium 67 (67Ga). B. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc). C. Technetium-99m (99mTc). D. Technetium-99m linked to methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP). Ans. D Q 246. Heberden’s arthropathy affects: A. Lumbar spine. B. Symmetrically large joints. C. Sacroiliac joints. D. Distal interphalangeal joints. Ans. D Q 247. Subtrochanteric fractures of femur can be treated by all of the following methods except: A. Skeletal traction on Thomas’ splint. B. Smith Petersen nail. C. Condylar blade plate. D. Ender’s nail. Ans. B Q 248. All of the following are true about FRACTURE of the atlas vertebra, except: A. Jefferson FRACTURE is the most common type.

B. Quadriplegia is seen in 80% cases. C. Atlantooccipal fusion may sometimes be needed. D. CT scans should be done for diagnosis. Ans. D Q 249. A 30-year-old man had road traffic accident and sustained FRACTURE of femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable cause can be: A. Pneumonia. B. Congestive heart failure. C. Bronchial asthma. D. Fat embolism. Ans. D Q 250. A 45-year-old was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause? A. Primary osteoarthritis. B. Avascular necrosis. C. Tuberculosis. D. Aluminum toxicity. Ans. B Q 251. All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic FRACTURE except: A. Pubic rami. 2. Alae of ileum. 3. Acetabula. 4. Ischial tuberosities. Ans. D

Q 252. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except: A. In a difficult intubation. B. In a cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

C. In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye Surgery . D. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity. Ans. D Q 253. The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint Surgery in children except: A. Ketamine. B. Ondansetron. C. Propofol. D. Dexamethasone. Ans. A Q 254. Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the intracranial pressure: A. Sevoflurane. B. Thiopentone sodium. C. Lignocaine. D. Propofol. Ans. A Q 255. The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except: A. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV). B. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). C. Pressure support ventilation (PSV). D. Assist-control ventilation (ACV). Ans. A Q 256. A lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques Anaesthesia except: A. General Anaesthesia . B. Spinal Anaesthesia . C. Caudal Anaesthesia . D. Combined spinal epidural. Ans. C Q 257. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneonsly breathing infant during Anaesthesia is:

A. Jackson Rees modification of Ayres T piece. B. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit. C. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister. D. Bains circuit. Ans. A Q 258. All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except: A. Induction is slow. B. Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchila secretions. C. Cautery can not be used. D. Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias. Ans. D Q 259. Which one of the following is the fastest acting inhalational agent? A. Halothane. B. Isoflurane. C. Ether. D. Sevoflurane. Ans. D

Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS
Q 260. Aspermia is the term used to describe: A. Absence of semen. B. Absence of sperm in ejaculate. C. Absence of sperm motility. D. Occurrence of abnormal sperm. Ans. A Q 261. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for trisomy 21 in fetus: A. Echogenic foci in heart . B. Hyperechogenic bowel. C. Choroid plexus cysts. D. Nuchal edema. Ans. D Q 262. The highest incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease is in: A. Australia .

B. Asia. C. North America. D. Western Europe. Ans. B Q 263. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is: A. Interspinous diameter. B. Diagonal conjugate. C. True conjugate. D. Intertuberous diameter. Ans. A Q 264. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is: A. Choriocarcinoma. B. Dysgerminoma. C. Embryonal cell tumor. D. Malignant teratoma. Ans. B Q 265. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly: A. Coarctation of aorta. B. Fallot’s tetrology. C. Ebstein’s anomaly. D. Transposition of great arteries. Ans. D Q 266. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease: A. IUCD. B. Depo-provera. C. Diaphragm. D. Oral contraceptive pills. Ans. C Q 267. The karyotype of a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome is: A. 46 XX. B. 46 XY.

C. 47 XXY. D. 45 XO. Ans. B Q 268. The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic pregnancy: A. Methotrexate. B. Misoprostol. C. Actinomycin-D. D. RU 486. Ans. B Q 269. The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is: A. 8-10 weeks. B. 10-12 weeks C. 12-14 weeks. D. 14-16 weeks. Ans. B Q 270. Which one of the follwing biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida? A. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein. B. Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein. C. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase. D. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase. Ans. C Q 271. Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is: A. 2.5 cm. B. 3.0 cm. C. 3.5 cm. D. 4.0 cm. Ans. A Q 272. All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except: A. Maternal obesity. B. Prolonged pregnancy. C. Previous large infant.

D. Short stature. Ans. D Q 273. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy? A. The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy. B. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women. C. Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants. D. Folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural tube defect. Ans. B Q 274. All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except: A. Anemia. B. Pregnancy induced hypertension. C. Maternal heart disease. D. Gestational diabetes. Ans. D Q 275. Misoprostal has been found to be effective in all of the following except: A. Missed abortion. B. Induction of labour. C. Menorrhagia. D. Prevention of post-partum hemorrhage (PPH). Ans. C Q 276. All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except: A. Androgens. B. Raloxifene. C. Isoflavones. D. Tibolone. Ans. B Q 277. In a case of dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised: A. Serum HCG.

B. Serum alphafetoprotein. C. Serum lactic dehydrogenase. D. Serum inhibin. Ans. C Q 278. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy: A. Hepatitis-B. B. Cholera. C. Rabies. D. Yellow fever. Ans. B/D Q 279. The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India is: A. Endometrial tuberculosis. B. Premature ovarian failure. C. Polycystic ovarian syndrome. D. Sheehan’s syndrome. Ans. A

Q 280. In von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome? A. Optic radiation. B. Optic tract. C. Cerebellum. D. Pulvinar. Ans. C Q 281. An 18 year old boy comes to the eye casualty with history of injury with a tennis ball. On examination there is no perforation but there is hyphaema. The most likely source of the blood is A. Iris vessels. B. Circulus iridis major.

C. Circulus iridis minor. D. Short posterior ciliary vessels. Ans. A Q 282. A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause? A. Vitreous haemorrhage. B. Optic atrophy. C. Developmental cataract. D. Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma. Ans. A Q 283. The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Congenital cataract. B. Retinoblastaoma. C. Endophthalmitis. D. Coats’ disease. Ans. B Q 284. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the following except: A. Keratoconus. B. Herpes simplex keratitis. C. Leprosy. D. Neurofibromatosis. Ans. B Q 285. Under the WHO ‘Vision 2020′ programme, the ‘SAFE’ strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases? A. Trachoma

MCI (FMGE) Question Paper – 2005 – # 2
1.Muscle which helps to open E.tube while opening mouth(Tensor tympani, Tensor palate, _, All)

2. The order of vessels in the Intercostal space from above to below(VAN, AVN, ANV)

3. Branches of Int iliac artery except (Ovarian a., sup vesical, med rectal, inf rectal)

4. Bipolar neuron is seen in ( parasympathetic ganglion, sympa ganglion, cochlear ganglion)

5. Inversion & eversion of foot joints at- Subtalor joints

6. No of lobes in liver as per COUINAUD’s classification- (3,4,6,8)

7. Umbilical cord contains – 2 arteries & 1 vein

8. Lig Arteriosum is derived from- Ductus arteriosus

9. MI ligament preventing uterine prolapse-(cardinal, teres uteri, broad lig)


10. Water soluble form of vit K(phyllaquinone, menaquinione, menadione, )

11. Single oral dose for vit D prophylaxis(50000,100000,200000 U)

12. Test for RNA detection-Northern blotting

13 .SSA-Glutamate in 6th posn in B chain by valine

14. Chitin is a polymer of-N acetyl glucosamine

15. Watson’s DNA model is -Right handed anti parallel

16. Wheat lacking in(lysine, leucine, threonine)

17. No of ATP produced by complete metabolism of pyruvate(12,15,18,30)

18. Final product of purine metabolism(uric acid, NH3+CO2)

19. T4 is formed from- Tyrosine

20. Daily required dose of Fe in an adult man(5,10,20,30)

21. Nieman pick dise due to def of-Sphingomyelinase

22. Saturated fatty acids max in(coconut oil, ground nut oil, palm oil)

23. MI indicator of protein efficacy(biol value, net protein utln, chemical score, protein efficacy ratio)

24. Dietary fibres rich in(polysaccharides, monosaccharides, non starch polysaccharides)

25. Dietary % of energy from fat should be less than(10,20,30,40)

26. Unconj bilirubinemia seen in all except(Dubin Johnson, Criggler najjar, Gilbert’s, Hemolytic anemia)

27. Source of NH3 in brain – Glutamine

28. BMR depends mainly on- body surface area


29. Normal PH of blood- 7.36-7.44

30. Longest life span for(lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes)

31. Normal glomerular capillary pressure(15,25,35,45 mm Hg)

32. Ion which is not interfered at loop of Henle(Na, K, Cl, urea)

33. MC Hb in adult(Hb A1, HbA2, Hb F)

34. Feacal mass mainly derived from(indigested food, undigested food, intestinal flora, intestinal secretions)

35. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except(adrenal medulla, NMJ, bronchial smooth muscle)

36. Anterior Pituitary secretes (ADH, oxytocin, FSH, GnRH)

37. Mucin acini cells characteristic all except(peripherally placed nucleus,distinct lumen,zymogen granules,transparent)

38. In synaptic cleft max concn of( Na, K, Ca, protein anions)

39. Charecteristic for smooth muscle cells(don’t require Ca, cant do recurrent contraction, cant do sustained contraction)

40. All or none law is obeyed by (spike potential, post synaptic potential, )

41. All carried through lat spino thalamic tract except(crude touch, pressure, pain, Temperature)


42. Longitudinal ulcers seen in – Typhoid fever

43. Amoebic ulcer is – flask shaped

44. TB ulcer edges are- undermined

45. Crescent shaped gametocytes seen in- Falciparum malaria

46. HIV affects (CD4, CD8, CD4+double +ve, CD8+)

47. Few RBCs,few neutrophils with some degraded fibrin in lungs seen in(grey hepatisation, red hepatisation, viral pneumonia)

48. Brunner’s glands in -Deodenum

49. Organ which undergoes involution- Thymus

50. Minimal change GN, all are true except(absence of podocytes, normal glomerulus, poor response to steroids)

51. Bence Johns Protein is – light chain monoclonal

52. True about NK cells except(mediates type IV hypersensitivity, kill viruses, are large granular lymphocytes)

53. MHC is important in pathogenesis of- ? auto immune diseases

54. SLE is- Type III hypersensitivity

55. Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited – AD

56. Which is not inherited XR(G6PD def, Duschene’s MD, Cystic fibrosis)

57. Lung Ca with worst prognosis( small cell, adeno. Squamous cell)

58. Ovarian tumours MC arises from (epithelium, germ cell, stroma)

59. Cholera toxin acts on (ADP G1, ADP Gs, _,_,)

60. FAMILIAL hypercholesterolemia due to- LDL receptor deficiency

61. Exudative pleural effusion seen in all except(CCF, Ca, Pneumonia, Nephrotic syndrome)

62. Most active form at tissue level(T3, T4, mono iod thyronin)

63. Immediate response in acute inflammation except(granuloma formation, vasodilatation, neutrophil migration)

64. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of(monocytes ¯ ophages, T cells, B cells)

65. Invasive Ca differs from Ca in situ by (basement membrane involvement, pleomorphism, _)

66. Pleural effusion in vertical positon MC accumulates in (costo phrenic recess, oblique fissure, horizontal fissure)


67. Babesiosis in India MC transmitted by – Ticks

68. Q-fever is caused by- Coxiella burnetti

69. Lymes disease is caused by- Borrellia burdgofferi

70. Megaloblastic anemia caused by – Diphyllobotrum latum

71. Paragonismus westermani is commonly called – Lung fluke

72. Toxic Shock Syndrome MC caused by- Staphylococci

73. Sabin Feldman test used to Dx- TOXOPLASMOSIS

74. Bedside rapid urease test is Dx of(Proteus, H.pylori)

75. Staph.aureus is a normal inhabitant of(nose , SKIN ,throat)

76. LRTI is MC caused by (streptococci,viruses,H.influenza, mycoplasma)

77. VR media used for -V.cholera

78. Which vaccine should not be kept in freezer- DPT

79. Promastigote form of Leishmania seen in (NNN medium, spleen , Bone marrow, lymph node)

80. All are dimorphic fungi except(Cryptococcus, histoplasma, paracoccidia, blastomycoses)

81. Which is Gram +ve(fusobacterium, bacteroids, artonella, ar—-lla)

82. Anti TB drug causing gout- Pyrazinamide

83. Prolactine is stimulated by(TRH, ACTH, GnRH, Dopamine)

84. GH is inhibited by (Bromocriptine, glucose, exercise, sleep)

85. In a patient with hepatitis which ATT is most safe( S+E, H+E, R+E, S+H)

86. Prokinetic drug with no dopamine antagonism(metachlopramide, domperidone, mosapride, chlorpromazine)

87. Warfarin acts by inhibiting – factors II, VII, IX, X

88. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.Tactics include all except( switch on to warfarin, cannot be substituted with LMWH, stop Heparin,_)

89. Warfarin metabolism is inhibited by( Ketoconazole, Pheno, Rifampicin, chronic alchoholism)

90. Disulfiram like rn is caused by all except(Griseofulvin, metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin)

91. Drug not interferes with antacid( Azithromycin, Tetracyclin, Norfloxacin,Ranitidine)

92. All are B-lactam inhibitors except(Astreonam, Sulbactam, Tazactam, Clavulenic acid)

93. Penicillin is(safe in pregnancy, is 6 amino penicill acid, all are not antipseudomonal)

94. Not used as an antacid(NaHCO3, AlOH3, SiO2, MgSO4)

95. DOC in LGV- Tetracycline

96. Lactic acidosis in DM therapy caused by – Phenformin

97. Pancreatitis is a S/E of( Didanosine, Zidovudine,Zalcitabine)

98. B-blockers are used in all except( A-V block, angina, FAMILIAL TREMOR )

Forensic Medicine
99. Female can give consent for SEX if above (16, 12, 19, 21)

100. Post marteum stiffening is called -Rigor mortis

101. Most informative test in parental identification-( DNA finger print, HLA)

102. Lesion with intact SKIN but internal Pathology – Contusion

103. Rural community health centre for(30000,60000,100000,200000) population

104. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended by WHO upto( 6, 4, 3, 9 months)

105. Patient made to walk early after Surgery , this is to- reduce disability

106. Which is secondary prevention(Cx pap smear checking, vaccination , admitting disabled child in special schools)

107. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a 37 yr well educated woman(Diaphragm, IUCD, mala N, mala D)

108. Best protection from STD & Syphilis by – condom

109. Method used to compare cost of 2 studies- cost accounting

110. Survillance is_

111. PQLI includes- IMR, Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy

112. Test which detects TRUE NEGATIVE- Specificity

113. Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad is – EXOTIC

114. Couple protection rate should be – 60%

115. Ideal couples are( just married, men 20-40 women 16-45,)

116. Fastest population growth in ( India, Kuwait, Pakistan, Srilanka)

117. A new drug not prevents a disease but reduce death due to that disease then- PREVALENCE increases

118. Socially attained behavior is( culture, custom, socialization_)

119. The upper line in growth chart is( 50 , 60, 70, 80 th percentile)

120. Who should be trained in a community for house to house surveys

121. MI factor deciding results of a clinical trial( Effective randomization, 50% Rx with placebo & 50% with drugs, Inclusion of all age groups, 100% follow up)


122. Trachoma in ( 1, 2, 3, 5 million people all over world)

123. MCC of vision loss in HIV( CMV retinitis, Toxoplasma, HIV retinitis)

124. Dendritic ulcer seen in – HERPEZ

125. Most serious complication after traumatic injury to one eye – SYMPATHETIC OPHTHALMIA

126. ROSETTE shaped cataract in – TRAUMA

127. Rx of choice in CAG ( surgical iridectomy, laser iridectomy, pilocarpine, trabeculectomy)

128. Ideal site for IOL- Posterior capsule

129. Laser used for IOL inpln- NdYAG

130. Muscle 1st to be affected in Thyroid ophthalmopathy.- INF RECTUS

131. Axial length of eye ball- 24 mm

132. 1mm increase in axial length leads to increase the power by ( 1,2,3,4 D)

133. Argyll Robertson pupil seen in – Neuro syphilis

134. Light reflex is carried through( Ciliary nerve, V, VII, )

135. Anterior Uveitis is MC assd with – HLA B 27

136. Scleritis MC assd with – RA

137. Interstitial keratitis MC seen in – Syphilis

138. MCC of Vitreous H-gge (Eale’s dse, DM , HTN)

139. Tractional RD is seen in (Vitreous loss after Surgery , DM retinopathy,_)

140. White pupillary reflex is called – Leucocoria

141. Dx test for corneal ulcer ( Flur.angiography, Alcian blue, Rose Bengal, methylene blue)

142. In DIRECT ophthalmoscopy image is magnified by ( 15, 5,10, 20 times)

143. Sup oblique muscle is supplied by – IV nerve

144. MCC of cataract blindness- (Senile, congenital, traumatic)

145. Max cones are seen in ( fovea centralis, macula lutea, blind spot)

146. Ext ear is not supplied by( GP nerve, Vagus, Great auricular nerve, Lesser occipital nerve)

147. Tonsills innervated by ( GP, Vagus, Abduscens)

148. Schwart’s sign is seen in – OTOSCLEROSIS

149. Pure tone is ( single frequency, multiple F, mixed F, F above 4000 Hz)

150. In BERA the IVth potential is from ( Cochlear ganglion, inf colliculus, MGB)

151. Bullous myringitis is seen in ( Measles, mumps,Herpez,Mycoplasma)

152. About Rhinoscleroma false is ( Cause subglottic stenosis, caused by Gm+, streptomycin useful in Rx, Mikkuliz cells & Russel bodies seen)

153. Le-Forte’s # is the # of – MAXILLA


154. Pin index of oxygen(5,15,25,35)

155. Laughing gas is – Nitrous oxide

156. Used for iv induction except (Bupivacaine, Thiopental Na, Ketamine, Etomidate)


157. Latest retinoid drug used in PSORIASIS – Adapalane

158. Isomorphism not seen in (Lichen sclerosis, Lichen planus, Vitiligo, PSORIASIS )

159. Alopecia,hyperpigmentation ,hypogonadism charecteristc for deficiency of #NAME?

160. Decreased no of melanocytes seen in(Pebaldism, albinism, )

161. Element MC used in brachytherapy of Ca Cervix- CESIUM

162. Filament in X-Ray made of- Strontium

163. Most radiosensitive organ- Bone marrow

164. Double Bubble sign in Barium meal seen in – Deodenal Atresia

165. Best method to Dx Pathology in terminal part of CBD. (USG, ERCP, PTC, CEST)

166. Investigation of choice in a person brought with traumatic paraplegia( MRI, CT, Myelography)


167. DOC in OCD( Sertraline, alprazolam, chlorpromazine)


168. Hill-Sachs lesion seen in – Reccurent dislocation of shoulder

169. Nerve damaged in # of shaft of humerous- Radial nerve

170. Bony ankylosis is caused by ( Septic arthritis, TB arthritis, Bechet’s dse, Psoriatic arthritis)

171. MCP joints are MC affected in – RA

172. 1st epiphysis to be ossified in elbow( Head of radius, Capitulum, Trochlea,

Med condyle)


173. MCC of death in TOF (bronchopneumonia, starvation, malabsorption)

174. Boy c/o haemetemesis, mild splenomegaly,no hepatomegaly.Dx ( Non cirrhotic fibrosis, chirrosis, Budd-Chiari sy)

175. Minimal fluid intake in an 8 kg boy should be ( 800, 700 ml, 1L)

176. Enuresis is normal until(5, 4, 3 1/2, 2 1/2 years)

177. Normal duration of physiologicl jaundice in a trm baby- 1 week

178. Charecteristic for achild with acute post strepto coccal GN- raised ASO& fever& Leucocytosis

179. Nephrocalcinosis seen in -Hyper PTH

180. 45 year man c\o vomiting with food mass taken days before,foul smelling breath, occasional dysphagia to solid food. Dx(Zenkers diverticulum, Achalasia, diabetic gastroparesis, scleroderma)

181. Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by (diastolic murmur duration, mid DMD, opening snap, intensity of S1)

182. Severity of DM assessed by (HbA1C, KB level, RBS)

183. Typhoid ulcer perforation in – 3rd week

184. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in (cholera, DKA, Lactic acidosis)

185. pH=7.28,PCO2=70,HCO3=36 Dx (resp acidosis with metabolic alkalosis, resp acidosis with metb acidosis)

186. In thalassemia trait(increased HbF & HbA2, increased HbF & decreased HbA2)

187. Tetany is not seen in (Verapamil, thyroid Surgery , hyperventilation, malabsorption)

188. Down’s Sy is Dx by all except(decreased hcg, increased hcg, decreased AFP)

189. 100% O2 not effective in (TOF, DILD, Eosinophilic pneumonia)

190. Prophylaxis to a child with RHD should be given minimum till(at least 5 years after onset, life long, till 17 years)

191. Carotid massage is effective in- PSVT

192. Lung Ca MC assd with(Asbestosis, Silicosis)

193. Not premalignant(Crohn’s dse, UC, Leukoplakia, Retinitis pigmentosa)

194. Complications of DU except(Malignancy, perforation, bleed, obstruction)

195. Not a cutaneous manifestation of TB( LUPUS pernio, LUPUS vulgaris, Erythema nodosum)

196. MI in aetiology of CAD- LDL

197. MCC of ICH- (HTN, Berry aneurysm)

198. Hemodialysis is not effective in( Digoxin , salicylate, methanol, barbiturate poisoning)

199. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia seen in – (HUS, HTN, DM , All)

200. Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV min for( 6 weeks, 4 weeks, 12 weeks, 8 weeks)

201. Vomiting,diarrhea 6 hours after food intake- Staphylococci

202. Patient c/o finger stiffness, dysphagia.Dx- Scleroderma

203. Hepatorenal syndrome charc by all except( normal intrinsic kidney , low or no proteinuria;_)

204. Best marker to assess prognosis after colon Surgery for Ca( CEA, Ca199, Ca125)

205. Rx of steroid dependant asthma(long acting B2 agonist, leucotrine antagonist, theophylline, systemic steroid)

206. Pretibial myxedema is seen in ( Thyrotoxicosis, myxedema, follicular Ca , Pappilary Ca thyroid)

207. Zn def not see n in ( Burns, TB, Renal tubular dse, malabsorption)

208. True about Pan coast Tr except(lower lobe Ca, MC adeno Ca)

209. Charecteristic of MCTD are all of the following (?except) (CNS involvement, GN, Polyarthritis, Hypocomplimentemia )

210. MC CNS involvement in HIV- Dementia

211. a -wave in JVP indicates – Atrial systole

212. Wide split fixed 2nd sound seen in – ASD

213. Anti mitochondrial Ab seen typically in – PBC

214. brain death is loss of(brain stem Fx, cortical Fx, spinal refex, corneal reflex)

215. H-gge into R internal capsule of aR handed person causes(Aphasia, R hom hemianopia, hemianopsia)

216. Spirochets can be identified by all of the follwg(?except) ( Dark field microscopy, Levaditi stain, Fontana stain, Gram stain)

217. Dressler’s syn due to- auto immune

218. Pinpoint pupil seen in all except(Imipramine, Chlorpromazine, _, None)

219. Pt with jaundice and ARF. MI in history except( TCA Rx,

sewage worker, Paracetamol poisoning, Drug abuse)

220. 45 year man c/o back pain & joint pain. In X-Ray B/L Sacroileitis. Dx. (Ankyl spondylosis, Psoriatic arthritis, RA)

221. Not a cause of Cor pulmonale( Mitral stenosis, intermittent PE, COPD, Kyphoscoliosis)

222. FAMILIAL bullous dse is equivalent to(Halvey halvey syn, Darrier’s dse, Bullous pemphigus)

223. MCC of hypovolemic shock- (H-gge, Gm-ve shock)

224. Flapping TREMOR is seen in all except( Thyrotoxicosis, Uraemia, CO2 narkosis, Hepatic failure)

225. In hemolytic anemia true except( increased haptoglobulin, BM hyperplasia, Reticulocytosis, increased unconj bilirubin)

226. Morphine is given in – LVF

227. MCA territory H-gge, not seen is( Aphasia, dysarthria, hemiparesis)

228. MI factor determining myocardial O2 consumption ( heart rate, blood volume, cardiac output, myocardial fibre tension)

229. Hypotonia seen in all except( anxiety, sleep, shock)

230. Tinel’s sign is seen in (nerve regeneration, degeneration, both, none)

231. Thrombophlebitis seen in ( Buerger’s dse, Reynauld’s dse, AV fistula)

232. GERD is predisposed by( Smoking, Achalasia, Trunkal vagectomy, All)

233. Not premalignant( Condyloma lata, Bowen’s dse, Balanopostitis)

234. Uvula vesicae is caused by(ant lobe, post lobe, medial lobe of Prostate)

235. In Carpel tunnel syndrome,the nerve involved is – Median Nerve

236. MCC of hepatic abscess in India( amoebic absess, infected haematoma, ascending infection, secondary to cholelithiasis)

237. Multiple lytic lesions in all bones of a child of 14 years. Dx( Histiocytosis X, Neuroblastoma, Osteosarcoma, 2ory from Wilm’s Tr)

238. Dumbing syn is charec by all except(Hyperglycemia, numbness & giddiness)

239. Not a complication of Crohn”s dse( Sclerosing cholangitis, granuloma, fistula, stricture)

240. Hirshprung’s Dse MC involves (recto sigmoidal jn, Rectum, colon )

241. Hirshprung’s Dse Dx by – Rectal Biopsy

242. Thimble bladder is seen in – TB

243. Mass 15 cm away from anal orifice .Rx( Colonoscopic removal, hartman’s operation, ant resection, abd-peroneal resection)

244. Sister Joseph Nodules are seen at – Umbilicus

245. Spigelian hernia is- hernia of arcuate line

246. Pott’s puffy Tr is – OSTEOMYELITIS of skull bone

247. Grey Turner sign in – Acute pancreatitis

248. Acute pancreatitis cause all except(induce fat necrosis, hypercalcemia, increased amylase)

249. Amylase is increased in all except( A/c appendicitis, A/c pancreatitis, duodenal perforation, intestinal obstrn)

250. Rx of paralytic ileus include all except(Parasympathomimetics, NG aspiration, IVF, Electrolyte correction)

251. Painful tender & non reducable sac through inguinal canal with absent cough reflex.Dx- Strangulation

252. MC organ ruptured in blunt trauma of abdomen- spleen

253. Bornhalm’s sign seen in – AV fistula

254. Dse with least flow(Intravisceral fistula, visceral hemangioma, portal vein shunt)

255. Stones are MC seen in which salivary gland- sub mandibular

256. Major amount of unstimulated salivary secretion by(Parotids,submandibular, sublingual, small lingual glands)

257. MC mode of spread to cervical LN in TB( Haematogenous, lymphogenic, contact)

258. MC mode of spread of Gall Bladder Ca- (Transcoelomic, lymphogenic, hematogenic, Direct extension)

259. Chronic cholecystitis is assd with all except( usually palpable, MC in women, Assd wiyh GB stones, Rokitansky cells)

260. MC type of Basal cell Ca- Nodular

261. LN involved in Breast Ca except( Pre tracheal, ant axillary, parasternal, supraclavicular)

262. Sted collar abscess seen in (TB, Syphilis, Actinomycoses)

263. Which cannot be considered as a solitary noduleof thyroid(adenoma, carcinoma, physiological goiter, cyst)

264. In neck dissection above omohyoid we are removing(I,II,III level LN)

265. Scaly lesions with frequent bleed around areola. Dx ( Paget’s dse, Ezcema, TB)

266. Epithelium in vagina is – squamous

267. Colposcopy used to visualize- Cervix

268. MC site of ectopic pregnancy,-(ampulla, isthmus, interstitium)

269. 43 year lady c/o prolonged and heavy bleed.O/E hyperplasia with no atypia. Rx(Estrogen, Estrogen+ progestogen, Progestron, Hysterectomy)

270. In a patient soon after 3rd stage of labour placenta fully came out, but heavy bleed. Tactics; (Massage & oxytocin, IVF, Check for placenta in uterus, check for laceration of labia)

271. Painless heavy bleed seen in ( Placenta previa, )

272. Hydramnios is complicated by all except( Atonic H-ge, obstructed labour, uterine dysfunction, Placenta abruptio)

273. Bacterial vaginosis causes(Pre term labour, abruption placenta, endometritis, Chorioamnionitis)

274. Gold standard in Dx of PID( USG, Laparoscopy, Blood leucocyte count, Anti chlamydial Ab)

275. LH:FSH ratio increased in – PCOD

276. Ovulation coincides with – LH surge

277. Exact no of weeks between LMP & EDD- (38, 39, 40 weeks)

278. Bishop’s classification is used for-_

279. Pregnant lady presnts with fulminant hepatitis. MCC( Hep A, B,C, D)

280. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral are all except(H-ge, Healing, pain, extension)

281. Active tactics in labour according to -PARTOGRAM

282. Investigations to be done in a girl presented with delayed puberty( USG pelvis, FSH, Karyotyping, All)

283. Best prognostic factor in breast Ca( LN involvement, age, FAMILIAL history)

284. MC presentation( LOA, ROA, LOP, ROP)

285. Appropriate investigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux- MCU

286. Not a complication of Pseudo pancreatic cyst(H-ge into cyst, Rupture, Malignancy)

287. Pheno cause HEMOLYSIS in all of the follwg except (G6PD def, TB, Alcoholism)

288. External ear infections are MC caused by (Pseudomonas, fungi, virus, actinomyces)

289. Major site of storage of labile proteins ( liver , skel muscle, endocrine glands, exocrine glands)

290. Virus causing Rabies in man is( Street virus, wild virus,–)
MCI (FMGE) Question Paper – 2005 (SEPT)
QUESTIONS SEPTEMBER 2005(part 1&2) (the answers marked with question mark are not appropriate. if anyone gets the correct answer, please do the proper corrections) 1,Hydatid cyst is commonly found in 1, liver 2, lungs 3, kidney (ans:liver ) 2, Most common site of abscess formation due to Amoeba 1, liver 2, Lungs 3, kidney (ans:liver ) 3, Umblical cord has (repeated question in all previous papers) 1,2artery n 1 vein 2,2 vein n 1 art. (Ans:2 artery n 1 vein) 4, Apoptosis Programmed internal suicidal cell death 5, wheal and flare reaction is 1, Type 1 hyper sensitivity 2, Type 2 hyper sensitivity 3, Type 3 hyper sensitivity 4, Type 4 hyper sensitivity (ans:Type 1 hyper sensitivity. All the anaphylactic reactions comes under type 1 hyper sensitivity) 6, Hypoglossal nerve is 1,6th nerve 2,7th nerve 3,12th nerve

4,9th nerve (Ans:12th nerve) 7, Muscle in the inguinal canal is 1, Internal oblique 2, External oblique 3, Transverse (ans:???transverse) 8, Total claw hand 1, ulnar and median nerve 2, ulnar nerve 3, median nerve (ans:?ulnar and median nerve) 9,In Hansen’s disease the nerve affected is: 1, ulnar nerve 2, median nerve 3, radial nerve (ans:ulnar nerve.Hansans disease is the other name for leprosy. the most common nerve affected in leprosy is ulna nerve. Ref.Bailey and love. Pg37-41) 10, Complication of extra capsular FRACTURE of femur: 1, Non union 2, mal union (ans:Non union Ref.SARP Surgery and orthopaedics pg.89) 11,eye ball moments controlled by all, EXCEPT: 1, optic nerve 2, abducens nerve 3, Trochlear nerve 4, oculomotor nerve (ans:optic nerve.( Abducens 6th nerve moves the eye laterally,Trochlear nerve helps in moving the eye down and in,Oculomotor 3rd nerve helps for outward lateral gaze) 12, Lacrimal duct passes through, except: 1, Frontal

2, maxillary 3, zygomaticus 4, lacrimal 13, Right common carotid artery arises from: 1,Right axillary 2, Arcus aorta 3, Brachiocephalicus (ans:Brachiocephalicus) 14, The first heart sound S1 is due to the: 1, AV closure 2, opening of aortic valve 3, closing of aortic valve (ans:AV closure) 15, Rheumatic fever is associated with: 1, Mitral valve 2,Pulmonary valve 3,Tricuspid valve 4, Aortic valve (ans:Mitral valve) 16. Hernia Morgani passes through: 1,pleuro peritoneum 2,diaphragm 16, Gland of Burner is found in (Rpt in march 2005) ()ANS:Deudenum) 17, Length of Duodenum: 1,15 2,20 3,25 (ans:20-25cm, Ref. SARP BAP(biochem,Anatomy ,Physiology ) pg 77) 18, Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the colon: 1, Transverse colon 2, Terminal colon 3, Jejunal colon

19, Unilateral breast findings with scaly SKIN around the nipple with intermittent bleeding (Rpt. In march 2005) 1, Pagets disease 2, Eczema 3,CA breast (ans:Pagets disease) 20Simple Mastectomy includes: 1,Breast and axillary nodes 2,only breast 3, Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle (ans:Only Breast, Simple Mastectomy- this means complete removal of the breast but the axilla is left undisturbed except for the region of the axillary tail which usually has attached to it a few nodes low in the anterior group. Ref.Bailey and love(20th edition) pg.733) 21, Continous Murmur is found in which arterial disease: 1,AV Fistula 2,Disecting aortic aneurysm (ans: AV Fistula. Continuous machinery murmur is also found in Patent Ductus arteriosus PDA) 22, which ion helps is potential: 1,Na+ 2,K+ 23. All of the following found in Horner’s syndrome, EXCEPT: 1,Ptosis 2,Meiosis 3, Hyperhydrosis (ans:Hyperhydrosis, In Horners syndrome, unilateral Anhidrosis(ie,loss of sweating) is found) 24. Peau d’ Orange of Breast is due to: 1,Obstruction if lymph 2,Obstruction of ducts 3,Obstruction of arteries 4,Obstruction of Vein

(ans:Obstruction of Lymphatic vessels, Ref.Robbins Basic Pathology ,pg.354) 25,Reabsorption of Water is maximum in : 1,proximal tubules 2,Henles loop 3,collecting duct (ans:Proximal tubules) 26,Carcinoid syndrome, ass. With except, 1,Diarhoea 2,Flushing 3,Acute appendicitis 4,cyanosis (ans:?cyanosis) 27,Acute Pancreatitis associated with: 1,Alcoholic 2,Gall bladder stones 3,Elevated serum amalyse 4,All of the above (ans:?all of the above) 28,Diagnosis of CA colon ,best indicated by: 1,colonoscopy 2,CT 3,Barium enema 4,x-ray (ans:colonoscopy) 29,Radiation is less in: 1,CT 2,MRI 3,Fluroscopy 4,X-ray (ans:MRI) 30,CA colon Marker: (ans:CEA)

31,AFP(alpha feta protein ) is increased in: 1,Hepatic carcinoma 2,Renal carcinoma (ans:Hepatic carcinoma) 32,Ananencephaly is better diagnosed in which trimester: 1,1st trimester 2,2-3 trimester 33,Which of the following nerve is damaged by the FRACTURE of the shaft of the humerus: 1,Radial nerve 2,ulnar nerve 3,median nerve (ans:Radial nerve) 34,Inversion and Eversion is done by? 35,Supination is done by: (ans:Radio ulnar joint) 36,FRACTURE of supracondylar of the femur affects which nerve: 1,sciatic nerve 2,poplitial nerve 37,Vein used in bypass Surgery : 1,Long saphenus vein 2,short saphenus vein (ans:long saphenus vein) 38,pulseless (ans:Methionine) 39,Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA: 1,adenosine 2,Uracil (ans:uracil) 40,Production of Uric acid is by: 1,Nucleic acid 2,Protein (ans:??nucleic acid)

41,Hexose is not seen in: 1,Pentose 2,Glucose 3,Fructose (ans:Pentose-5 ,and hexose is 8 ) 42,Common complication of long bone FRACTURE : 1,Fat embolism 2,Pulmonary embolism (ans:Fat embolism.It is the commenest complication of long bone fractures like, femur FRACTURE ) 43,Definitive management for Tension pneumothorax is: (ans:Thoracosynthesis) 44,Normal Fluid level in pericardium 1,100-150 2,50-100 3,150-200 45,polyhydroaminosis is increase in aminoitic fluid more than: 1,1000ml 2,2000ml 3,3000ml 46,HIV is associated with 1,Disseminated TB 2,Oesophageal candidiasis 3,MAI 4,all of the above (ans:?all of the above) 47,Radiological findings of Ewings sarcoma(Rpt) (ans:Onion Peel appearance) 48,Osteosarcoma affects: 1,Metaphysis 2,Diaphysis 3,Epiphysis (ans:Metaphysis,Ref:SARP-Surgery and orthopaedics ,pg 51)

49& 50,,Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by: (ans:Clostridium Difficle) 51,Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever: 1,WIDAL test 2,VDRL (ans:WIDAL.Enteric fever is the other name for Typoid fever, and the the diagnostic tests include, (mneumonic:BASU,ie, 1st week,B-blood culture,2nd week,A-agglutination test which is called as WIDAL,3rd week S-Stool culture and 4th week,U-Urine culture) 52,Complement Fixation test is: 1,Coombs test 2,Waserman reaction 3,VDRL 4,WIDAL 53,Iron Deficiency anemia is commonly caused by (Rpt) (ans:Hook worm ) 54,Which is a pre-toxin: 1,E.coli 2,Cholera 3,SALMONELLA 4,Staph.aureus 55,Trauma to spleen is best diagnosed by: 1,USG 2,CT (ans:?USG) 56,Post splenectomy causes: 1,Thrombocytosis 2,Thrombocytopenia 3,Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia 57,Radial nerve 1,c5,c6 2,C5,C6,T1 (ans:C5,C6.T1)

58,ST elevation is seen in: 1,Acute MI 2,Pericarditis 3,Prinze metals angina 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 59,cholera vaccination is effective: 1,6 months 2,3 months 60,Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as: 1,0,1,6months 2,0,1,6 days (ans:0,1,6 months) 61,BCG should be given: (ans:Immediately after birth) 62,Cellular fragments od Rabies vaccine is given at: 1,Anterior Abdomen 2,Deltoid muscle 3,Medial part of thigh 63,BCG is diluted with: 1,NS 2,Distilled water 64,Vitamin A should be given at: (ans:6-9months) 65,Cancroid is caused by: (ans:H.Ducrei) 66,Swan Gann Catheter is used to measure: (ans:PCWP-pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) 67,CVP denotes,pressure of: 1,Right atrium 2,Rt.Ventricle 3,Left atrium 4,Lt.Ventricle

(ans:Rt.atrium,?as the vena cava(sup. N inf.) ends in Right atrium, central venous pressure helps in determing the venous filling) 68,Tricuspid Incompetence: 1,a wave 2,Hepatic pulsation (ans:hepatic pulsation, pulsatile liver is a feature in Tricuspid regurgitation) 69,In a patient with Diabetic nephropathy , the anti hypertensive commonly used is: 1,ACE inhibitors 2,Ca channel blockers 3,B-blockers (ans:ACE inhibitors) 70,Microaneurysm is the most common complication of: 1,Diabetic Mellitus 2,Hypertension (ans:Diabetic Mellitus) 71,Most common cause of blindness in India is:(Rpt. In March 2005) (ans:Cataract) 72,Vitreous Hemorrage in Young patients is most commonly due to: 1,Diabetics mellitus 2,Retinal Detachment 3,Eales disease (ans??Eales disease) 73,The lens used in astigmatism: 1,concave lens 2,convex lens 3,cylindrical lens (ans:cylindrical lens) 74,seminoma is ca of: (ans:testes) 75,Post.staphyloma: 1,myopia

2,hypermetropia 76,constriction of pupils: 1,only light reflex 2,light reflex and accommodation 3,refraction (ans:??light reflex and accommodation) 77,??keratoconus 78,Inhaled forgeign body is seen in the: 1,Right apex 2,Right lower lobe 3,Left apex 4,Left lower lobe (ans:?Right lower lobe) 79,Community acquired pneumonia: 1,pneumococci 2,streptococci 3,H.influenza 80,Placenta Praveica: 1,Painfull bleeding 2,severe abdominal pain 3,painless bleeding 4,all of the above (ans:painless bleeding, only Placenta Abruptia has painfull abdominal pain with bleeding) 81,A pregnant lady in her first trimester,complaints with bleeding, on examination the OS is closed: 1,Inevitable abortion 2,Threatend abortion (ans:Threatened abortion,since the OS is closed it should be threatened abortion, is the os is opned, it can be inevitable abortion) 82,A primigravida with hypertension, when should we induce labour: 1,35 week 2,37 week

3,40 week 4,39 week (ans:?37 week) 83,Anti-D Rh is given for: (Rh positive father, and Rh neg. mother) 84,for a lady in her pregnancy, to prevent Tetanus, who should be immunized: 1,Tetanus toxid to the mother 2,Tetanus toxid to the infant 3,immunoglobin to the mother (ans:TT to the mother) 85,Treatment for ectopic pregnancy: 1,salpihigotomy 2,observation 3,D&C 86,Misoprostol is given, except 1,Missed abortion 2,To induce labour 3,menorrhagia 4,postpartum hemorrhage

87,custodial rape is judged in 1,Judicial magistrate 2,district magistrate (ans:judicial magistrate) 88,Anti-hypertensive contratindicated in pregnancy : 1,Hydralazine 2,Methyldopa 3,Enalapril 4,Amylodopine (ans:?enalapril) 89,which is a pro-drug: 1,enalapril

2,clonidine (ans:?enalapril) 90,pharmocodynamics deals with: 1,Mechanism of action 2,Excretion 91,Theurapatic index: 1,efficacy 92,Le fort FRACTURE (Rpt in march 2005): 1,Maxilla 2,Mandible (ans:Maxilla) 93,Metabolic acidosis is seen in: (ans:Diabetic ketaacidosis,(Mneumonics:LUKD,Lactic acidosis,Uremia-renal failure,Ketoacidosis,Drugs like acetozolemide,phenformin etc,..in all these conditions, metabolic ketacidosis is seen) 94,Breast feeding is contraindicated in: 1,Mastitis 2,HIV carrier 3,Open TB 95,Condoms are more preferred because, they have: 1,Reduced side effects 2,reduced failure rates (ans:reduced side effects) 96,Natural method of contraception:: 1,Rhythm method 2,coitus interruption 3,breast feeding 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 97,Infant Mortality rate is: (ans:1000 live births) 98,Maternal mortility rate calculated as:: 1,42 days after delivery

2,immediately after delivery (ans:??42 days after delivery) 99,Total fertility rate is: 1,reproductive age of the female at 15-44 100,Eligible couple (rep. march 2005) Recently married couple where the female is of fertile age 101,Not a grevious injury: 1,contusion of breast 2,multiple scars of face 3,FRACTURE of femur (ans:contusion of breast) 102,Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism during pregnancy: 1,prophyltiouracil 2,carbamazipine (ans:propylthiuracil) 103,No. of parathyroid glands: 1,4 2,6 3,2 (ans:4) 104,Features of Graves disease,except: 1,most common in male 2,TREMOR 3,pretibial myxodema (ans:most common in males, graves disease is most commonly found among females, TREMOR , pretibial myxodema are characteristic features of graves disease) 108,Hypercholestremia is commonly associated with: 1,hypothyroidism 2,diabeticsmelitus 109,All are features of hypothyroidism except, 1,lid retraction 2,myxedema

3,bradycardia 4,dry SKIN (ans:lid retraction, it is seen in hyperthyroidism ,ie, as exopthalmus, when the patient has exophthalmus, there is lid retraction. Rest are features of hypothyroidism) 110,Virchos triad is seen in: 1,DVT 2,Hyper coagulity 3,Abdominal visceral malignancy 111,glasscow scale in death is: 1,0 2,3 3,5 (ans:3, patient is declared death when the GCS is 3) 112,panic attack is: 1,Acute anxiety 2,chronic anxiety 113,sucidal tendency is assoiciated with: 1,depression 2,schizophrenia 3,impulsive disorder 4,all of the above (ans:?depression or ? all of the above) 114,short acting drug(or? Bezodiazephams) 1,diazepham 2,lorezepham 3,midasolam (ans:?diazepham or ?midazolam. both are short acting drugs, if benzodiazepham is mentioned then diazepham will be more opt. lorezepham is a long acting benzodiazepham) 115,short acting anesthetic agent used for induction: 1,thiopental 2,ketamine

3,propofol (ans:?propofol) 121,Hypnotic drug action is: 1,rapid elimination and slow distribution 2,slow elimination and rapid distribution 122,H+ ion is eliminated by 1,lungs 2,stomach 3,kidney (ans: ?kidney ) 123,First pass metabolism: 1,oral 2,sub cutaneus 3,sub lingual 4,rectal (ans:??sublingual) 124,lassik content 1,xenon 2,excimer 3,yog

(ans:?excimer) 125,A 40 yr old male,has a rash over the groin, with a scaly lesion on examination: 1,candidiasis 2,Malazi furfur 3,Trichophyton

126,Most common nosocomial fungal infection: 1,candidiasis 2,aspergillosis 127,superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from except: 1,testis

2,uterus 128,EBV(ebstein barr virus) except: 1,pancreas 2,burkitts lymphoma 3,glandular fever (ans:?pancreas) 129,antiaggrent: (ans:asprin) 130,anticoagulant is given in all conditions except: 1,pericarditis 2,DVT 3,pulmonary embolism (ans:pericarditis) 131,OCP(oral contraceptive pills) is contraindicated in (ans:hepatic failure) 132,Primary colours except: 1,green 2,red 3,white (ans:white) 133,in colour blindness (ans:?defect in 1 or more prime colours) 134,jovel bodies seen in ? 135,Most commin utero-vesicle fistula in India: 1,obstructed labour 2,pelvic Surgery (ans:obstructed Surgery ) 136,Treatment for zollinger elison syndrome: 1,omeprezole 2,cimitedine (ans:omeprezol, proton inhibitors are best indicated ) 137,2nd stage of labour:

1,increase in contraction 2,cervix dilatation 3,all of the above (ans:?all of the above) 138,Heamolysis: 1,vit.E 2,vit.K (ans:vit.E) 139,Free radicals: (ans:vit.E, vit.E,A,C are anti-oxidants.) 140,Meckels diverticulitis is ass. With: 1,increased bleeding 2,ass/ diverticulitis 141,pharyngeal pouch? 142,Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed by (Rpt in march 2005) (ans:MCU(micturating cysto urethrogram) 143,Heamocolpus is : (ans:imperforate hymen) 144,Height doubles at: (ans:4 years) 145,vitamin D deficiency is: (ans:Rickets) 146,Enteric fever is caused by: (ans: S.thyphi) 147,Tubercular focus at apex: 1,gommus 2,simsands 148,Nutritional essential in a child noted as 1,weight for age 2,height for age 3,arm circumference 149,Tyrosin becomes essential in 1,phenylketonuria

2,thyrosinosis 150, ,In intermittent porphyria what is the urine content: 1,uroporphyrin 2,porphobilinogens (ans:porphobilinogens,Ref:Oxford handbook of Medicine ,pg 708 151,Essential amino acids are named so: Because they are not produced in the body 152,Enzymes are: 1,protein 2,Lipid (ans:protein) 153,Poluunsaturated fatty acids,Except: 1,olieic acid 2,arachinic acid 154,All are bad cholesterol except: 1,HDL 2,LDL 155,MI enzymes are: 1,Tropin 2,Myoglobulin 3,LDH 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 156,UTI contains microbes: 1,>10^6 >10^10 157,Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk: (ans:IgA) 158,IgM denotes: (ans:primary reaction) 159,Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis: 1,CT 2,USG

3,Xray (ans:??CT) 160,What is the major side effect of streptomycin: (ans:Ototoxicity) 161,which is of Obstructed COPD: 1,Bronchial asthma 2,Chronic bronchitis 3,bronchoectasis 4,all of the above 162.apoprotein of cholesterol: 1,apoE 2,apo A1 3,apoA2 163,Pancreatic calcification is due to: 1,alcoholism 2,Cystic fibrosis 3,idiopathic 4,heriditory 164,cholesterol is: 1,b-caratone 165,Breast milk ejection is due to: 1,oxytoxin 2,prolactin (ans:oxytoxin,pralactin helps in secretion of milk) 166,Weight of a child triples at: (ans:1 year) 167,recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies except: 1,cricothyroid 168,Not a solitary nodule: 1,cyst 2,adenoma 169,Cryptococcus 1,pigeon droppings

170,endemic dropsy: 1,sanginosus 171 ,in Malaria falciparum: 1,ring shaped cresents seen 172,potassium sparing drug: 1,spironolactone 2,furesemide (ans:spironolactone,all other diuretics causes hypokalemia when given,spironolactone spares pottasium) 173,carbohydrates,proteins and fat metabolism occurs in which cycle: 1,krebs cycle 2,coherts cycle 174,pulse biferns occurs in: 1,AR 2,AS n AR 3,HOCM 4,all of the above (ans:?all of the above) 175,Obstructive jaundice is due to: (ans:gall stones) 176,Difference between human milk and cows milk: 1,iron deficiency 177,Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is due to: (ans:uterine atony) 178,in SHOCK: 1,hypotension 2,hypoperfusion to tissues 3,hypoxia 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 179,hepatitis E 180,what is the lung findings in HIV: 1,disseminated TB

2,LUPUS vulgaris (ans:disseminated TB) 181,Pneumoperitonium is seen in: 1,PA erect view 2,abdominal xray 182,Wilson disease is due to : (ans:copper) 183,which is a mast cell stabilizer: (ans:sodium chromoglycate) 184,drinking water test is done in: 1,acute congestive glaucoma 2,acute glaucoma 3,chronic glaucoma 185,osmolity 1,serum potassium 2,serum sodium (ans?:serum sodium) 186,plaque is caused by 1,flea 2,tics 3,mites (ans:?flea) 187,HONK (hyper osmality non ketoacidosis) occurs in: (ans:Diabetes mellitus) 188,Mid day meals: 1/3 calories +1/2 protein 189,heamorrage leads to: (ans:hypovolemic shock) 190,Most common stranglulation occurs in: (ans:femoral hernia) 191,cough impulse is not seen in: (ans:strangulation) 192,Acute appendicitis:

1,fever >42 2,anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever (ans: anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever) 193,active potential: K+ 194,Least conduction fibres: 1,C- fibres 195,Reticulocytes are found in: (ans:hemolytic anemia,when HEMOLYSIS occurs, much of immature reticulocytes are produced in bone marrow,Ref.check kapithans ped. Book) 196,Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock: 1,adrenalin 2,steroids 3,antibiotics 4,antihistamine (ans:antibiotics) 197,Ovulation occurs: 1,14 days prior to next menstruation 2,14 days after menstruation 3,on 14th day (ans:14 days prior to next menstruation:) 198,Complication in Diabetics mellitus occurs after : 1,6 years 2,8 years 3,12 years 199,glove and stockings sensory loss occurs in: 1,syringomelia 2,pheripheral neuropathy 3,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 200,causative of sore throat: 1,Strep.pyogens 2,staphylococcus

(ans:strep. Pyogens, it is the causative for infective endocarditis) 201,sup. Thyroid occurs frm: 1,4th branchial arch 202,DNA: 1,deoxyribose sugar 203,Mycobacterium grows in: 1,LG medium 204,Effective sterilization: 1,steam under pressure 2,hot water 205,?pasturation of milk determined by: ??methylene blue 206,Sharp instrument should be disposed in: 1,red bag 2,blue bag (ans:?red bag) 207,term vaccine was named by: 1,Louis Pasteur 2,Jenner 208,Absence of sperms: 1,oligospermia 2,Azzospermia (ans:azzospermia) 209,Duputryens contracture affects: 1,little finger 2,ring finger 3,middle finger (ans:little finger) 210,GB (gullian barr syndrome) characteristic: (ans:loss of limb reflex) 211,Co2 is carried in the plasma in the form of : 1,bicarbonate 2,carbonic acid

(ans:?bicarbonate) 212,glucose in ORS is used: (ans:for the absorption of Na+) 213,disease caused by cotton: (ans:bysinosis) 214,aniline dyes causes: 1,bladder Ca 2,renal ca 3,hepatic ca (ans:bladder ca) 215,non alcoholic hepatitis,except: 1,Mallory hyaline fibrosis 2,steatis 216,COPD -all except, 1,RVF(right vent. Failure) 2,polycythemia 3,LVF(left vent. Failure) (ans:?LVF) 217,Most common feature of essential hypertension: 1,headache 2,visual fortification (ans:headache) 218,LVH is caused by: (ans:essential hypertension, hypertension causes left vent. Strain) 219,Vagina is lined by: 1,Squamous cell epithelium 2,columnar cells (ans:squamous cell) 220,Nitrates indicates: (ans:,recent pollution) 221,first line prevention of epidemics: 1,confirmation of diagnosis 2,isolation

3,mass immunization 222,pin point pupils are seen in, except 1,datura 2,opiods 3,organophosphates 4,cerebello pontine hemarroge (ans:datura(ectasy) 223,glomular filtration rate increases in: 1,hypertension 2,bowmen capsules pressure 3,increased osmotic pressure 224,hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by: (ans:cyclophosphamide) 225,allopurinol: 1,inhibits the synthesis of uric acid 226,Gerotas fasia covering: 1,kidney 2,femur 227,gentamycin is not given orally because 228,which drug effects both bacterial and anerobic infections: 1,sparfloxcillin 2,pefloxacillin 3,norfloxacillin 4,ciprofloxcillin 229,Dark ground microscopy: 1,refracted light 2,polarized light 230,retained placenta causes 1,prolonged bleeding 2,sepsis 3,placental polyp 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above)

231,exercise to increase the muscle strength: 1,isotonic 2,isometric 3,aerobic isotonic 232,Southern blot test: 1,DNA 2,RNA 3,PCR (ans:DNA, northern blot test is for RNA, Western blot for HIV) 233,niacin is synthesized 1,tryptophan 234,Iron storage is: 1,transferring 234,In vitro fertilization: 1,artifical insemination 235,spinal cord ends at: 1,L2 2,S1 3,L1 4,S2 (ans:L2) 236,estrogen deficiency leads to: 1,osteoporosis 2,dysmenorrhea (ans:osteoporosis, most of the post menopausal women get osteoporosis, because of estrogen def.) 237,curlings ulcer: 1,deudonal ulcers in burns 238,humoral cells are 1,B cells 2,NK cells 3,T cells 239,in leprosy

1,SKIN histocytes 2,swann cells 3,all of the above 240,bile secretion stimulation all, except: 1,vagus 241,semicircular canal 242,cardiac output is determined by, except 1,stroke volume 2,cardiac contractility 3,cardiac rate 4,body surface area (ans?:body surface area) 243,vessels to meninges: 1,external carotid 2,internal carotid 3,vertrebral 4,basilar 244,Artery supplied to sup. Temporal brain : 1,middle cerebral art. 245,epiphyseal plate FRACTURE is classified by 1,harris 246,?directly acting drugs except: ?dopamin 247,pharmocodynamics and pharmacokinetics: 1,nitrates 2,amiodarone 3,verapamil 4,hydralazine 248,maternal mortality ? 1 lakh 249,pneumatocoel is caused by (ans: staph. Aureus)

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Mci (fmge) 2007 March Q Paper

1) LCAT activator, Lipoprotein 2) Moorens ulcer a) UNDERMINED EDGE b) Chlamidia 3)First symptom in pots paraplegia 4)Hiper calcemia is not seen in? Skeletal metastasis 5)AuspitZ sign is seen in? 6)A 40 year old man with elevated mood? mania 7)What is not common in Colles fracture? non union 8) Man with fluid comig from the nose. What fracture? Ans. Base of skull and para nasal sinuses 9) Terminal phalanges pulp space infection? 10)Roths spot is seen in? SABE 11) Autoclaving? a) 121 C 15Cu/m 15 minutes b) 121 C 15Cu/INCH 11 minutes Please correct me if I am wrong 12) BACTERIA MOST COMMOLY INVOLVED In VALVULAR HEART DISEASE? 13) Adrernaline is added to lignocaine injection for what ? a) Pain relief b)For longer action of anaesthetic 14) In sympathetic opthalmia what is involved? ciliary body iris 15) Coats disease what is correct? bilateral leucocoria 16) PH of tears? 7.0 7.5 17) Some strange opthalmological sign of conjuctivitis, in which condition it is found? I hope the answer is vernal conjunctivitis 18) A question on Eale’s disease 19)Constant change of refractive power seen in which cataract? Intumescent insipient, the options of that order, not staight forward. I think by the time we pass this exam they will make us opthalmology professors.

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20)what is injured most commonly in abdominal hysterectomy? ureter urinary blader, atlast a repeat 21) What passes with aorta through the diaphram? vagus azygous vein 22)what is not advised in shoulder distocia? pressing over the pubis over the perineum 23)Viagra like medicine is given in which condition? primary pulmonary hypertention secondary pulmonary hypertention 24) The commonest cause of medistinal mass shadow? left ventricular hypertrophy 25)A question on chedahi higashi syndrome? 26)A case on negligance, contributory negligence will give protection in? Civil negligance criminal negligance 27)Medial epicondyl fracture most common involvement of? median nerve ulnar nerve 28)Most important nerve in hand function called by some name answer was median nerve 29)Raised ICP will cause what? hypertention, bradicardia hypertention tachycardia hypotention tachycardia hypotention bradycardia 30)Head injury what is not found? confusion loss of consiousness and some thing else which i dont remember 31) Brain calcification is not found in which condition? toxoplasmosis herpes simplex rubella 32)A baby of 9 months wont be? sit with support dry by day 33) Decreased LAP score is found in which condition? PNH ALL 34) Test used to detect old blood stain? benzedene acid elution takayama 35)Kala Azar is transmitted by what?

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sand fly 36)what is not seen in Multiple Myeloma? lymphadenopathy hypercalcemia 37)following is not given in hypertention? halothane ketamine 38)Type of excimer laser used in myopia? SeF YsI, not very clear of the options 39)Cause of appearance of coloured halos? corneal congestion 40)Rate limiting Enzyme in Glycolysis? phosphofructokinase and something else 41)Substrate leve phosphorelation is seen in which step? SuccinylCoA to Succinate 42)hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is by which mechanism? ABO incampatibility preformed antibodies autoantibodies 43)The organ that is commonly involved in hyperacute rejection? heart kidney liver 44)DOC pregnant woman with cerebral malaria? quinine chloroquine 44) cootton wool spots are most commonly seen in what? diabetes AIDs hypertention 45) Heart failure cells are seen in what condition? 46) A Borrelia disease which I dont remeber is transmitted by what? hard tick soft tick 47)Which paranasal sinus opens in to upper nasal turbine? frontal sphenoid ant ethmoid 48) Oculocardiac reflex is coomonly seen in what? squint surgery cataract surgery

49) Sodium Fluoride Inhibits what (added to blood sample,inhibits erythrocytic enzyme)? Enolase 50)Deficiency of Sphyngomyeline causes what?

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Nieman Picks Disease 51)Carrier of cholesterol from liver to tissue? LDL 52)In starvation what does not take place? Increase of insulin 53)Type of collagen found in Cartilage? Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 54) Stain used for Corynebacterium Diptheri? Mcfadeans Alberts 55)Operation theatres are sterilized by? Formaldehyde fumigation 56)Normal duration of action of Levonogestrol containing IUCD? 1 year 3 years 5 years 10 years 57)What is not usefull in hypercalcemia? Calcitonin Dialysis Saline infusion 58)Milk ejection is facilitated by? Oxytocin prolactin 59) Erbs palsy what is involved? C5 C6 C7 C8 T1 60)Type of squint seen in 6th nerve palsy? Crossed Uncrossed 61)Hyperaccussis is seen in which condition? Otoschlerosis Sensorinueral deafness 62)Ashleaf spots are seen in which condition? Tuberous schlerosis 63)In Kartageners Syndrome what is not involved? Bronchiectasis Sinusitis Situs Inversus And some other nonsense which was the answer 64) Which of the following statement is false? Granulamatous inflammation is found in chrons disease Perianal lesions are common in Chrons disease Strictures involving the colon are found in Ulcerative colitis None of the above

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65)Amino acid metabolism affected in marfans syndrome? 66) FNAC is usefull in all except? Riedels thyroiditis Follicular carcinoma Medullary carcinoma Pappilary carcinoma 67)Which is longest acting (not sure)? Roxacurium Mivacurium Doxacurium was not given 68)Commonest complication involved in parenteral nutrition? Air Embolism And some others which I cant remember 69)Glycoside treatment is necessary in post infarct patient for what? Ventricular ectopics Atrial fibrillation 70)An upper motor neuron lesion of Fascial nerve will cause what?(Repeat.) Cotralateral lower face paralysis Ipsilateral lower face paralysis 71)Most common cervical carcinoma? Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma 72) Glucose is not produced in muscle cells due to the lack of which enzyme? Glucose 6 phosphatase glukokinase 73)The drug that inhibits protein synthesis? Streptomycin Amoxycillin Sulfonamide Tetracycline 74) Ovarian artery is a branch of? Abdominal aorta Internal iliac 75) Hysterectomy is commonly indicated in postpartum for which of the following condition? Placenta accrete Uteral rupture Atonia 76) All are features of hyperthyroidism except? Low apetite 77) Most usefull prognostic indicator in HIV? T helper count T helper to ___ ratio 78) In asthma or anaphylaxis which is the Ig Involved? Ig E Ig M Ig G 79) Entero enteric fistula is found in? Chrons disease

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Ulcerative colitis 80)Increased Amylase is seen in all except? Perforative ulcer Acute Appenticitis Acute Pancreatitis 81)Spike And Dome Pattern Is Seen In? Grant mal Petit mal 82)The Substance used to determine renal perfusion? PAH Inulin 83) Metabolic Disturbance in pyloric stenosis? Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis 84)The dangerous consequence of flial chest? Pneumothorax And something else which I cant remember. 85) The administration of which of the following drug require monitoring? Digoxin Lithium 86) In Multiple Myeloma following is found in urine? Ig light chain Ig heavy chain 87)Western blot test is used for the analysis of? DNA RNA Protein 88) Pancreatic Proteases are invoved in the activation of? Trypsin Pepsinogen Bile salts 89) Which of the following is not supplied by Superior mesenteric artery? Descending Colon 90) A Biochemistry question regarding the Glutamine production in the brain? 91)A question on the usage of a diuretic in renal failure or CHF not sure? Hypochlorothiazide Frusemide 92) An Anatomy question concerning coronary artery branch and its area of perfusion? 93) A Question concering Monteggio fracture? Upper ulnar fracture and lower radial dislocation Upper radial fracture and lower ulnar dislocation. 94) Hypothyroidism is diagnosed by which of the following? Decreased T3 Increased TSH Decreased T4 95) A hormone involved in the ferning of the endometrium? .

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Eostrogen Progestron 96) HCG Level increases to the maximum in what duration? 20 hours 48 hours 14 days 40 days(not sure about this option which is the answer) 97) The commonest uteral anomaly involved in infertility? [snip]) A question concerning the characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease.? Decreased FEV1/VC 99) Ileac crest involvement is common in which condition? Reumatoid arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis. 100) What causes dry mouth and urinary retention? Opiate intoxication Organophospurous intoxication 101) The minimum score in Glasgow coma scale? 0 3 1 102) What are the chances of missing a diagnosis of endometrial cancer after D and C? 2% 10% 40% 103) Where is the centre of urination located in the brain? Pons Medulla Basal ganglia Cerebellum 104) Where on the retina, no visual sensation is perceived? Centre of the optic disc 105) Dentritic ulcer is caused by which of the following? Herpes simlex 106)Commonest cause of oesophagic perforation? Iatrogenic 107)Ameobic abscess is commonly located in which part of liver? Anterior superior Posterior superior Etc. 108)Protrution of tongue is by which of the following structures? Hypoglossalis nerve Styloglossus Glossopharangeus 109)Commonest cause of schlerosing cholangitis? Iatrogenic 110)Necrosis of the myocardium takes place in what duration after coronary artery occlusion? 20 minutes

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20 hours 48 hours 111) Austin flint murmer is seen in which of the following condition? 112)Large a waves are seen in, or what does large a waves in JVP represent? 113)Cryptococcal infection is treated by? Cotrimaxosol 114)Best proposed theory of endometriosis? 115)Which of the following is not affected in mumps? Tear glands Testes Ovaries 116)Commonest salivary gland where stones are found?(Repeat) Submandibular Parotid 117) peu de orange is 118)Malate shuttle is important in?(Repeat AIIMS 2001) Glycolysis 119) Chaperones are important in?(Repeat AIIMS ) Protein folding 120) Asceptic necrosis takes place in which of the following fractures? Fracture of olecranon Fracture of femoral head was not given 121)When lot of specialists given lecture on a single topic what it is known as? 122)Most useful method of estimating the iron content of blood? Serum Ferritin 123)Brown atrophy of the heart is caused which of the following? 124)Source of nitrogen atom in urea cycle? 125)Location of vena saphena magna in relation to malleolus? 126) Endometriosis can be present everywhere except? 127)Which of the following is most usefull for diagnosing typhoid in the first week? Blood culture 128)Drug used treat hypertensive crisis in pregnancy? Hydralazine IV 129) Which of the following drug is not combined with Zidovudine? 130) Chyluria is not caused by which of the following? 131) Amount of Water Lost in Feacus daily? 132) Depth for water seal in latrine? 2cms, 4cms, 6cms,

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8cms 133) IMR for Japan? 3, 13, 23, 33 134)Best method of treating Hyperkalemia? 135) Natural reservoir of Chikkun gunya virus? Monkey Birds Pig 136) A question on Dengue Fever? 137) post nivirapine therapy d vertical transmission of hiv is reduced by wat percentage? 5 to 10 10 to 12 12 to 15 30 138) the best way to diagnose gall stones intraoperatively in cbd 139) wat is d time lag btw head and shoulder in dystocia. 10 sec 20 sec 30 sec or 40 sec 140)anesth of choice in asthamatics a ketamine 141) mc location carcinoma tongue a antr 1 third laterally mid 1 third laterally pstr 1 third laterally dorsum 142) gland not innervated by facial nerve a parotid sublingual submandibular 143) anatomical waste is put in yellow bag blue bag red bag black bag 144) board is set in which phase of trials in med phase 3 phase 2 phase 1 phase 4 145) which of d followin r not included in phase 1 of clinical trials of med cancer patients old aged healthy voluntee 146) SLE most definative indicator—– antiDs dna antibodies anti phospholipid antibodies anti smiths antibodies

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147)hba1c indicates deficiency from — 6 to 12 wks — 2 wk 3 2 wk 148)anderson disease —- branching enzyme deficiency 149) best dig 4 avascular necrosis —- bone scan x ray ct 150)false abt cancer oesophagus —– caused by smoking and alcohol upper 2 by 3 is sq cell ca low 1 by 3 is adenocarcinoma 151)condition of penis not related to malignancy hypospadia 136)cubital fossae petichae in dengue in cuf test 4 diag r minmal — me 5,10,15,20 152)a ques on dhatura poisonin was asked….the usual syptioms were described 153)a ques on ipc section for custodial rape was asked 154) sec metastatic clacific occur in– sarcoidosis, tb… 155)no of phc in india —–30000, 37000 , 20000 ,15000 156)contraindic in preg —— enalpril 157)echinococcus in liver —- up rt quad antrly up rt quad pstrly low lt quad antrly 158) who limit for hb in preg — 11,7,9,10 159) man runs at 15 km per hour energy spent — 1000,500,600,800 k cal 160)nivirapine to child born to hiv affected mother within — 24 , 36,48 , 72 hours 161)oedema plus a protein loss– nephritic syndrome 162)antr fonta in baby closes by– 18 mth,6, 3 or 9 mths 163) hypercalcemia all dec except—thiazides i . v dilution furosemide 164)bile duct investigation ——— HIDA SCAN 165)in urea cycle ammonia comes from — ammonia and aspartic glutamate and asparagine ammonia plus glutamic acid 166)blind spot of marriotte———- orra serrata maculae 167)1 st sypmptom in eye after hiv infection— papiledema soft exud hard exud aneurysm

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168)familia hypercholesteremia— LDL RECEPTOR DEFICIENCY 169)subluxation of lens——- homocystinuria 170)heriditary spherocytosis causes—gall stones 171)a long ques on thalidomide was asked 172) contra india in renal artery stenosis— ace inhibitors 173)sterile pyuria—— tb 174)d.o.c for chlamydia treatment–Doxycyclin 175)positive trendelberg sign seen in all except— gluteus medius, maximus, minimus 176)pseudo tb is like — none, tb like , plague like disease 177)vitk dependent all except– factor 7 ,9,2 10 178)methyl alcohol poison give—ethyl alcohol 179)B 12 def caused by all eceptt—gasterectomy, ileal resection etc. 180)conditions leading to breast cancer are all except -ans- breast feeding 181) Some options were given, you have to find out in which one you find dystrophic calcification, a Pathology question? 182) A question regarding the Possiblity of Vertical HIV Transfer If no profilaxis is given? 183) A question concerning the volume of the anterior chamber of the eye or similar question? 184) Sommering is a type of what cataract? After cataract 185) A question on Angle closer glaucoma? Cant recollect exact question. 186) A question about GI outlet obstruction syndrome. 187) The causes of Megaloblastic anemia are all except 188) An easy question regarding the prognosis of esophageal carcinoma, what is false? Good Prognosis. 189) which of the following is not a cause of Intestinal perforation? Typhoid Surgery 190) Which of the following is autosomal recessive disease? 191) Hypertention leads to what complication? 192) Anderson is a type of? Cant recollect the exact question. 193) Heart Failure cells are found in which disease? 194) Crushmans Spiral are seen in? 195) Reids Index is seen in? 196) Psammoma bodies are seen in?

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197) A patient with hypertention, proteinuria, hematuria. Your Diagnosis? Acute Glomerulonephritis Nephrotic syndrome Nephritic syndrome. 198) Significant bacteriuria is said when–? 199) Which of the following appears first in diapetic retinopathy? Neovascularisation Spasm of arterioles 200) Commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy? 201) Commonest carcinoma causing bony metastasis? Lung cancer Clear cell carcinoma Pheochromocytoma 202) Dose of warfarins is managed by? INR 203) DOC Of PIH? 204) Which of the following is false about phenytoin? 205) A question on the ingradients of ORS? 206)What is not found in Horners Syndrome? Miosis Hyperhydrosis Enophthalmos Ptosis 207)Iron content of blood is estimated using? TIBC Ferritin HB Transferrin 208) An Incomplete question from endocrinology involving Hypothyroidism and Diabetes.(Grace marks given)

209) Most common peripheral artery to be affected in Berger’s Disease? 210) Another question, options didn’t make any sense (grace mark probably given) 211) P O2 remains the same. P Co2 is Increased -What type of condition is it? 212) If haemoglobin is saturated with CO, the hypoxia involved is? Hystotoxic Anaemic Hypoxic 213) Red Infarct is seen in which of the following organs? Heart Intestine Liver 214) Which of the following does not passes through sinus cavernosus? 215) Which of the following drug can be used for anaerobic Infections?

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216) Which of the following drug is not given by oral route? Streptomycin Amoxicillin Tetracyclin 217) A question on tumor markers? CEA 218) There


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