Multiple Choice Question MCQ for Australian Medical Council Exam AMC
By Live Dr - Wed Nov 05, 1:30 pm
. A young medical student, who has started his clinical postings, comes to because his colleagues noticed a yellowish, tinge to his sclera. On examination he is normal except for the yellow sclera. Investigations showed:
Direct bilirubin – Elevated
Direct bilirubin > (Total – Direct bilirubin)
Which of the following is most likely?
a) Gilbert’s syndrome
b) Haemolytic jaundice
c) Ca Pancreas
2. A young man has a syncopal attack while weight lifting. He has had similar episodes twice before. His father died of cardiac disease. What is the most appropriate management?
a) Holter monitor
c) Stess test
d) BP in supine & lying down
e) CT scan
3. A 23-years old young lady complaints of lethargy and weakness. She has sore throat and 3 days ago she has returned from JAVA where she suffered from fever recently. Her weakness is due to —
c) Post viral fever fatigue
d) Infectiuos mononucleosis
4. A 29-year old woman, 6 months previously had pleurisy, in the last 2 years mouth ulcers, now develops stiffness and oedema of the wrist and MCP joints; in the morning which disappears afterwards. The most likely cause?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Crohns disease
c) Ulcerative colitis
5. Which of the following most commonly causes pulmonary hypertension & corpulmonale?
c) Pulmonary embolism
e) Foreign body
6. Which of the following is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers?
a) Peripheral oedema
7. In diabetic neuropathy you can find each of the following except?
b) Urine retention
d) Diarrhoea at night
e) Foot ulcer
8. All of the following are true about duodenal ulcer ,except?
a) Hunger pain
b) Loss of appetite
c) Weight gain
d) Pelapses & remissions
e) Relief by antacids
9. An 18-year-old student presents with jaundice, sore throat and dark urine. There was no hepatitis contact, no IV drug use, and no recent travel history. Bilirubin 80, elevated Gamma-GT, AST 300, ALT 400 and albumin normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Infectious Mononucleosis
e) Acute Cholecystits
10. How would you differentiate between haemolytic anaemia and anaemia of chronic blodd loss?
a) Decrease haptoglobin
b) Increased reticulocyte count
e) Raised ferritin
11. A 65-years old presents with confusion. The blood test show rerum Na 165, Urine osmolality 205. The most likely diagnosis is?
b) Diabetes Mellitus
c) Diabetes Insipidus
d) Water intoxication
e) Renal failure
12. A 70-years old woman presents with a 3-month history of fatigue, generalized lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c) Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
d) Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
e) Chronic Myeloid leukaemia
13. Regarding immunology, which of the following is correct?
a) Natural killer cells are a subset of T cells
b) B cells produce first Ig M and later Ig G
c) Ig E is involved in mucosal protection
14. A 60-years old obese man, on ACE inhibitors for hypertension, Metformin & glibenclamide for diabetes, benzodiazepines & TCA’s for depression & insomnia, now complaints of impotence. Which drug is the most likely responsible for the impotence?
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
e) ACE inhibitors
15. A 30-year old bisexual male, presents with clear urethral discharge, mouth ulcers, arthralgia, fatigue and sausage like fingers. Culture was negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Reiters disease
b) Bechet’s disease
c) Ankylosing spondylitis
16. A 56-year old man presents confused. He cannot abduct his eyes, there is a slight problem with elevating his eye and nystagmus is present throughout. Most likely diagnosis is?
a) Wernicke’s encephalopathy
17. A 23-years old university student has fever, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy & malaise. ALT, AST & GGT are elevated. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. The diagnosis is?
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis C
c) Infectious mononucleosis
18. Hypokalemia occurs in all except?
a) Thiazide diuretics
b) Pyloric stenosis
c) Chronic renal failure
d) Laxative abuse
19. A 22 year old man developed haematuria and slight swelling of the face. On examination BP-150/80 mmHg, RBC & hyaline casts are present in the urine. Most likely diagnosis?
a) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Ig A nephropathy
e) Renal tubular necrosis
20. A 37-years old woman has unilateral exopthalmos. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
b) Nasophryngeal tumour invading the orbit
c) A neoplastic lesion in the lamina cribrosa
e) Infection of the frontal sinus
f) Maxillary antral tumor
21. All of the following are side effects of prednisolone except?
e) Weight gain
22. A patient you treated for duodenal ulcer with Helicobacter pylori for 1 week with treiple therapy. He is asymptomatic now. Which of the following is the best follow up?
a) Urea breath test
d) Histological examination
23. A 20-year old man is found to have HIV. What does this indicate?
a) He has AIDS now
b) He has got lifelong infection & infectivity
c) He needs to start pneumocystis carinii prophylaxis
d) He requires to start AZT therapy
e) He can transmit through saliva now
24. A 70-year old woman complaints of fatigue. Blood picture—
MCV 118, Hb decreased, WBC decreased, platelets decreased, Hypersegmented polymorphs present. The most likely diagnosis?
a) Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
b) Pernicious anaemia
c) Anaemia of chronic disease
d) Anaemia due to silent gastrointestinal bleeding
25. A 68 years old man with COPD was brought to your surgery from nursing home by ambulance. On his way to hospital he received O2, 10 L/m by mask. He is still unarousable and his ABG most likely–
a) Ph 7.29 PaCO2 65 PaO2 85
b) Ph 7.15 PaCO2 50 PaO2 68
c) Ph 7.25 PaCO2 25 PaO2 100
d) Ph 7.35 PaCO2 40 PaO2 40
e) Ph 7.45 PaCO2 85 PaO2 40
26. A 24-year old female has abdominal pain every week. Sometimes she has face & lip swelling. Her mother and sister also have this. What would you do to establish a diagnosis?
a) Measure Cl esterase
b) Check for food allergies
c) Check Pb levels
d) Ig A deficiency
27. A patient complaints of headache, vomiting & papilloedema. Which of the following is the most likely cause?**
a) Giloma of the frontal lobe
b) Tumour obstructing the 4th ventricle
c) Pituitary tumour
28. An elderly patient has acute onset unilateral deafness, tinnitis & vertigo. What is the diagnosis?
a) Meniere’s disease
b) Acoustic neuroma
c) Vestibula neuronitis
29. A patient has calcium oxalate renal stones. What is the most appropriate managemant?
b) Alkalinize the urine
c) Stop taking food with calcium
d) Give calcium
30. Heparin therapy is monitored by which of the following tests?
c) Bleeding time
d) Serum fibrinogen
31. A middle-aged man is brought to your surgery with a history of being bitten by a black snake. On examination there are scratch marks on the lower leg and no other symptoms. What is your management?
a) Reassure and send him home
b) Excise wound
c) Administer antivenin immediately
d) Apply Tourniquet
e) Observation and antivenoum if necessary
32. Opening snap indicates:
a) Mitral valve mobility
b) Atrial fibrillation causes disappearance of the opening snap
c) Replaces S3
d) Best heard at 2nd right intercostals space
e) Remains unaltered despite progression of the disease
33. A man presents with a history of treatment with Sulphasalazine. The least likely complication for the condition he was treated for would be?**
c) Erythema nodosum
d) Peripheral neuropathy
e) Ankylosing Spondylitis
34. In contact dermatitis, which is common?
a) Contact with plants
b) Can be treated by topical steroids
c) Can be treated by oral steroids
35. All of the following are present in interstitial fibrosing alveolitis except?
a) clubbing is common
b) Normal FEV1/FVC does not exclude the diagnosis
c) Diffuse expiratory crackles
d) Decreased VC
36. A 72-year old man with a history of non-small cell lung cancer now complains of lethargy, constipation and thirst for the past few weeks. What is the most likely problem?
b) Ectopic parathormone production from the cancer itself
c) Metastasis to the brain
37. A 64-year-old male complaints of pain behind the right eye, associated with lacrimation, which appears every morning & disappears in the afternoon, for the past 2 weeks. Had similar episodes previously. Which is the prophylactic treatment?**
38. A patient has diarrhoea, fatigue and pallor. Blood picture shows MCV 110. What is the diagnosis? (DAV – 642)
a) Pernicious anaemia
b) Crohn’s disease
c) Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
d) Tropical sprue
39. A 60-year-old man, who smokes 60 pack per year, presented with shortness of breath, was given 28% oxygen by mask. 30 minutes later, his ABG was PaO2 68, PaCO2 60. What would you do next?
a) Stop oxygen and check ABG after 30 minutes
b) Continue oxygen until normal PaO2 is eached
c) Immediate intubation & ventilation
d) Give immediate antibiotic cover against gram negative bacteria
e) Start aminotryptillin iv infusion
40. Which of the following conditions is most likelyto become chronic?
c) Hepatitis C virus
41. A young man presents with pleuritic chest pain and cough. On examination there is dullness on percussion and brochial breathing over the right lower zone, posteriorly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Right lower lobe consolidation
b) Right lower lobe collapse
c) Pleural effusion
e) TB cavity
42. Erythema nodosum occurs in all except?
a) Steptococcus infection
b) Rheumetic fever
43. A young man, who had taken some intravenous drug, was found unconscious, with 3 breaths per minute and constricted pupils. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?
44. Amyloid can occur in each of the following except?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Chronic active hepatitis
e) Multiple myeloma
45. A 68-years old female presents with a 2-week history of unilateral headache and an ESR 80 mm/hr. The most appropriate treatment is?
46. A female aged 23 years, presented with proteinuria. There is a previous history of enuresis till 13 years of age. Her sister also had enuresis as a child. The history is suggestive of which of the following?
a) Chronic glomerulonephritis
b) Reflux nephropathy
c) Congenital nephritis
d) Polycystic kidney disease
e) Analgesic nephropathy
47. A patient, who had been taking a particular drug, now presents with haematuria. The drug is most likely?
a) Calcium channel blocker
48. A person presents with alpha antitrypsinogen deficiency. What is the most likely association?**
a) One parent has died of emphysema
b) Limited to bronchioles
c) Uninhibited protease action
49. A 65-year-old man presented with confusion. Laboratory findings showed hypercalcaemia, calciuria, and phosphates within normal limits. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Malignancy(osteolytic metastasis)
b) Primary hyperparathyroidism
c) Idiopathic hypercalcaemia/hypercalciuria
d) Pagets disease myeloma
50. A 28-year old male presents with distal weakness and atrophy of the small muscles of
both hands(interossei, lumbricals, thenar & hypothenar). What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Multiple sclerosis
b) Bilateral median nerve palsy
d) Bilateral ulnar nerve palsy
e) Brainstem infarction
51. A person with severe aortic stenosis has a systolic gradient of 55 mmHg. What other feature required suggesting the severity?
a) LV ejection fraction
b) LV end diagnosis pressure
c) Cardiac output
d) LV hypertrophy
e) LV end systolic pressure
52. An elderly man presents to the emergency dept with chest pain. No ECG changes and cardiac enzymes are normal. What is true?
a) If ECG is normal he does not have a cardiac problem
b) He should have an immediate stress test done
c) Intravenous nitrates & heparin are not indicated
d) No follow up ECG is required
e) Streptokinase is indicated if there are ECG changes
53. The most common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea is?
a) Salmonella Typhi
c) Enterotoxic E. Coli
e) Giardia Lamblia
54. Taste sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is carried by which nerve?
b) Facial nerve(VII)
55. Which of the following is least likely to cause facial nerve palsy?
a) Skull fracture
c) Chronic parotitis
d) Parotid tumour
e) Acoustic neuroma
56. A patient has massive ascitis and in the fluid malignant cells are found. Which of the following is a possible finding?
c) Supraclavicular swelling
d) On digital rectal examination, nodules can be palpated
57. The single most reliable test for Haemochromatosis is?
a) Red cell mass
b) Serum iron
c) Serum ferritin
d) Serum Transferrin
e) Transferrin saturation
58. In which of the following, is administration of immunoglobin as a prophylaxis not useful?
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
59. In Von Willebrandt’s disease you will find:
a) Increased platelet count
b) Increase bleeding time ( Bleeding time is prolonged, platelets show reduced adhesion and levels of Factor VIII are low )
c) Normal APTT
60. 12 years old boy came with severe dyspnoea and afibrile condition. O/E you found R/R- 40/min, Pulse- 130/min. There is O2 saturation at room air of 85%. WOF will be appropriate–
a) Give salbutamol $ hourly at home
b) Give salbutamol and aminophyllin 4 hourly at home
c) Give him O2 and send him to hospital by an ambulance.
61. All the following drugs are proven to decrease the marality in myocardial infection, except?
b) ACE inhibitors
c) Beta blockers
62. A patient with COPD came in the emergency department with severe dysponea, 28% O2, 8 liter was given by mask. After one hour you did arterial blood gas & you found that PaO2 level was 42 mm Hg, and Pa CO2 level was 68 mm Hg. WOF you will do now?
a) Increase O2 inhalation by mask
b) Increase I/V fluid
c) Repeat arterial blood gas level
d) Ask the patient for intubation and ventilation
63. A 50 yrs old lady admitted with Atrial Fibrillation.Blood tests show :
a) TSH : decrease (Note:Dx-Thyrotoxicosis
b) T3: increase if all decrease, Dx pituitary disease)
c) T4: increase
Your management will be-
a) Total thyroidectomy
b) Subtotal thyroidectomy
c) Radioactive iodine
64. An office clerk with high blood pressure. He is obese and he takes 3-4 cups of coffee everyday. WOF is not correct—
a) Consumption of coffee contributes greatly to his BP
b) Reducing body weight will help to reduce his BP
c) In 90-95% cases no cause is found for BP.
d) He should be advised about safe level of drinking alcohol.
65. A male presents with a sudden onset of vertigo and nausea. During the attack he has deafness. WOF is your diagnosis is —
a) Positional vertigo
b) Acoustic neuroma
d) Basilar artery infection
66. Photograph 1: Shows a skin lesion on the forearm. Slightly raised, red plaque, slightly scaly. What is the diagnosis?
a) Lichen planus
b) Discoid eczema
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
e) Contact Dermatits
67. Photograph 2: Shows a skin lesion, pinkish brown colored lump. The lesion in the picture was found on the forearm of a young male. 2 weeks later he develops pneumonia associated with crepitation through out both lungs.WOF organism is causing this lesion-
a) Staphylococcus pneumonia
b) Staphylococcus Aureus
c) Mycoplasma Pneumonia
d) Pneumocystis carnii
e) Mycobacterium Avium
68. Photograph 3 : X-ray showing an open fracture of the fibula & tibia. A young man, after an accident on his motorcycle, presented with 3 cm of bone protruding through the skin of his leg. What is your next line of management?
a) Internal fixation of the fracture immediately
b) Skin closure of the wound immediately to prevent infection
c) Reduce the fracture and apply plaster of paris
d) Give tetanus toxoid IM & antibiotics iv
e) Debribement is only indicated when the wound is severely contaminated
69. Photograph 4 : A diabetic man comes to see you. His right leg below his knee is red & shiny. What is the best initial management?
a) Penicillin & flucloxalillin
d) Ampicillin & gentamicin
e) Ampicillin, gentamicin & metronidazole
70. Photograph 5: Shows the head & neck of a female. There is a large swelling at the center of the neck and no exophthalmos of the eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Multinodular goiter
b) Ca thyroid
c) Sub acute thyroiditis
d) Thyroid cyst
e) Graves disease
71. Photograph 6: Shows a red hemispherical lesion on the back of a hand. Some brownish/necrotic tissue present at the border of the lesion, no visible punctum. What is the diagnosis?
a) Malignant Skin Lesion
b) Inflamed keratoacanthoma
c) Infected lipoma
d) Lichen planus
e) Solar Keratosis
72. Photograph 7: X-ray showing colles fracture.
An elderly person sustained a fall on an outstretched hand. What is true?
a) Median nerve function should be assessed
b) The plaster cast is not suitable to correct the fracture in the elderly
c) Immediate internal fixation
d) Plaster cast from below elbow to MCP joint, for at least 10 weeks
73. Photograph 8 : showing a deformed hand(swan neck deformity).
Which of the following is true?
a) It is due to erosion & rupture of the flexor tendons
b)It is more common in rheumatoid arthritis than oseoarthritis
c) It is due to Ulner nerve compression
74. Photograph 9 : A young child with a patch of hair loss on the scalp. Some small flakes of skin are present. What is your diagnosis?
c) Alopecia areata
75. Photograph 10 : A man came with his wife. A slow growing soft large lump on his back in between the scapulae remains in that position for last 10 years. WOF is your MX —-
a) Observation and reassurance
b) Opinion from specialist
1. A man is suffering from back pain, so he is sleeping on a hard wooden bed for last three weeks. Now he complains of pain in his right elbow. WOF is the cause of the pain in elbow–
a) Olecranon bursitis
b) Injury to the insertion of flexor muscles
c) Injury to the insertion of extensor muscles
2. During an operation spleen was accidentally injured and spleenectomy was done to minimize the complications. Next morning the patient asked you about the success & progress of that operation. As an intern you will tell him—-
a) Every thing has gone smoothly
b) Your spleen has been removed
c) During the operation procedure complication arised and to minimize further complication it was necessary to removed your spleen.
d) Only the surgeon could tell you about your operation.
3. A young man injured in a road traffic accident (RTA) has fractures of three ribs anteriorly on the left and a minimal left pneumothorax. Peritoneal lavage is positive for blood, and laparotomy is planned for intraperitoea hemorrhage. The most important step prior to laparotomy is —-
a) Insertion of a nasogastric tube.
b) Insertion of intercostals drainage tube
c) Determination of PaO2 and PaCO2
d) Insertion of a central venous pressure line on the right side.
e) Delay surgery until BP comes to normal
4. After an operation for aortic aneurysm/aortography, there is uncontrollable bleeding from the site of the grafting. WOF is best to transfuse—-
a) Fresh blood
c) Fresh frozen plasma
e) Factor VIII
5. A man came to you complaining of pain in the leg. O/E you could not find pulse in his leg. You clinically become sure that there is atherosclerasis or atheroma in the peripheral artery. This is due to —-
a) Stenosis of femoral artery
b) Thrombosis of Femoral artery
c) Polyarteritis nodosa(PAN)
d) Rupture aneurysm
6. A 42-years old man complaints of pain in his right hand. He tells you that the previous day he used a chainsaw for long hours to cut trees. O/E you found his right arm is slightly swollen than other arm, and there is pain too. WOF is most appropriate investigation–
b) Lymphanogram (Dx: Raynaud’s phenomenon; due to use of vibratory tools)
c) CT Scan
7. Regarding unilateral undescended testis, which of the following is most commonly associated?
c) Ingiunal hernia(Indirect)
e) Torsion of the testis
f) Direct Ingunal hernia
8. A 64-years old man presents with profuse bright red bleeding per rectum. What is the most like cause?
a) Ca colon
d) Duodenal ulcer
9. A 50-year old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. Which of the following is least likely to be the cause?
a) Acute appendicitis
b) Perforated peptic ulcer
c) Acute pancreatitis
d) Ruptured abdominal aortic aortic aneurysm
e) Renal colic
10. Which of the following disseminated malignancies has the worst prognosis?
a) Metastatic beast cancer
b) Metastatic choriocarcinoma
c) Metastatic seminoma
d) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
e) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
11. Which of the following is the most common cause of bloody discharge from the nipple?
a) Intraductal carcinoma
b) Intraductal papilloma
c) Paget’s disease of the braest
e) Duct ectasia
12. Hutchinson’s melanotic freckle. Which of the following is not correct?
a) Mostly occurs in the elderly
b) Mainly occurs in covered parts of the body
d) Irregular border
e) Irregular colour (from black to brown)
13. A diabetic patient with an ulcer at the head of the 2nd metatarsal on the sole of the foot. Which of the following would be the most likely cause?
a) Macrovasclar disease
b) Diabetic neuropathy
d) Varicose venis
14. A 60-year old man presents with 3 days vomiting and loss of weight (3 kg.). Six years ago he was treated with cimetidine. Over the last 3 months he has had epigastric pain intermittently, for which he takes aspirin. Vomitus is clear in colour with identifiable food particles. The likely diagnosis is?
a) Drug induced gastritis
b) Chronic duodenal ulcer disease
c) Ca pancreas
d) Cancer of the cardia of the stomach
e) Pyloric stenosis
15. The most common cause of diarrhoea in bedridden elderly patients is?
a) Ca colon
b) Crohn’s disease
c) Ulserative colitis
e) Faecal impaction
16. A female had mastalgia for the last 1 year. Conservative treatment has not worked. How would you manage this patient?
17. With fat embolism, petechiae are most to be seen where?
a) All over the body
b) Pressure dependent areas
d) Upper part of the body
e) Lower body
18. A 65-year old woman develops acute abdominal pain with distension. There is a history of 12 hours of vomiting and cramping pain. On examination, irregular pulse 120/min, BP-100/60 mmHg, abdomen is tender with guarding and bowel sounds are absent. Rectal examination reveals a dark bloodstone on the finger. Which of the following is most likely?
a) Perforated peptic ulcer
b) Messenteric arterial occlusion
d) Perforated appendicitis
e) Ca colon
19. A 21-year old man presents with increasing dysponea, tachypnoea a hyperinflated left hemithorax with evidence of a mediastinal shift. Your immediate management would be?
a) Insert a water sealed chest drain
c) Insert a venflon into 4th intercostals space midaxillary line
d) Insert a wide bore needle into the 2nd intercostals space, midclavicular line
20. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with otosclerosis?
a) Normal tympanic membrane
b) Red & inflamed tympanic membrane
c) Tense & transparent tympanic membrane with fluid level behind
d) Blue gray sclera
e) Obstruction of the Eustachian tube
21. Which of the following is true regarding carcinoma of the nasopharynx?
a) Arises from the lymphatics
b) Not sensitive to radiotherapy
c) Responds well to chemotherapy
d) Caused by EBV
e) Locally destructive lesion
22. All are seen in ischaemia of the leg, except?
c) Pain on walking
d) Shooting pain down the posterior aspect of the thigh
23. Which of the following is least likely to cause metastasis to the brain?
a) Prostate cancer
c) Small cell carcinoma of the lung
d) Breast cancer
e) Renal carcinoma
24. Which of the following is not a feature of uncomplicated haemorrhoids?
a) Bright red bleeding
b) Prolapse of mucosa
25.Which of the following nerves would be damaged in a mid-humerus fracture?
a) Axillary nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Musculocutaneous nerve
d) Ulner nerve
e) Median nerve
26. A female complaints of bloating & belching. She is found to have gallstones, which is subsequently treated by cholecystectomy. Cholangiogram was done during the operation and was clear (nothing was found). She was symptom free for 1 week, but then the same symptoms returned. What is the most likely?
b) Cystic duct stump syndrome
c) Stone left in the common bile duct
d) Symptoms are not related to the gallstones
e) Post cholecystectomy syndrome
27. All are true about gallstones, except?
a) Usually asymptomatic
b) Stone in the bile duct presents with clinical sepsis
c) Ususally radiolucent
28. Which of the following is true regarding mammography?
a) More sensitive in premenoposal than postmanuposal women
c) Most useful in woman with a palpable breast lump
d) It has a better pick up rate than self examination
e) Can differentiate between a solid & cystic tumour
29. All of the following would be expected after splenectomy for spherocytosis, except?
a) Transient leucocytis
b) Persistence of anaemia
c) Same osmotic gragility
d) Persistence of spherocytosis
e) Normal life span of the erythrocytes
30. What is the most important aspect in managemant of an open fracture?
b) Intenal fixation
d) Tetanus toxoid
31. A 35-years-old woman having severe sudden abdominal pain throughout the night wakes up and passes dark urine in the bathroom. She immediately goes to see the doctor. Investigations showed:
– bilirubin – 5 times normal
– Alkaline phosphatase – 3 times normal
– AST & ALT – 4 times normal
– S.amylase – 2 times normal
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Acute cholelithiasis
b) Acute cholecystitis
c) Ca gallbladder
d) Acute choledocholithiasis
32. What is true about fistulas?
a) It is a communicating track between 2 epithelial surfaces
b) It is lined by granulation tissue
c) It is a blind track leading from the surface down to the tissue
d) A kind of ulcer
33. What is true regarding pain management?
a) Pethidine is best given by calculating mg/kg body weight
b) Pethdine is better than morphine
c) Pethidine should not be repeated within 4 hours
d) Older patients require less, because they tolerate pain better
34. You are performing external cardiac massage on a patient who has just suffered a cardiac. Which of the following provides best indication that resuscitation is effective?
b) Palpation of the radial pulse
c) Color of skin & mucous membranes
d) Size & reaction of the pupils
e) Response to stimuli
35. All of the following are risk factors for breast cancer, except?
a) Early artificial menopause
b) First pregnancy after 35 years of age
c) Early menarche
d) No breast feeding
e) Cancer of the other breast
f) age – peak incidence 45-75 years but any age postmenarche >> 4x
g) country of residence – high in West > 4x e.g. UK, low in East e.g. Japan
h) previous breast cancer > 4x
i) irradiation of chest – shows a linear dose-response relationship 2-4x
j) social class (I vs. V) 2-4x
k) race – more common in Caucasians < 2x
l) previous ovarian or endometrial cancer < 2x
m) early menarche or late menopause < 2x
n) nulliparity or older than 30 years before first child < 2x
o) hormonal supplementation < 2x
p) obesity – oestrogen synthesis in adipose tissue
q) alcohol consumption
In the male, Klinefelter’s syndrome is a risk factor for breast cancer.
36. A 32-years old man felt pain in the maxillary area at night, which radiates to the side of his head. There was water inside his nostrils during the attack. WOF is your diagnosis—
b) Cluster headache
c) Maxillary sinusitis
37. A 35-years old female came with complaints of wake up during the night with pain in her right hand & a shooting pain up the arm. She has difficulty using her right hand when carrying a shopping bag. Examination shows slight thenar wasting. What is your diagnosis?
a) Brachial neuritis
b) Thoracic outlet obstruction
c) Cervical spondylosis
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome
e) Cervical rib
38. A man presents with history of an inguino-scrotal swelling, which disappears on lying down. What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) Saphena varix
c) Femoral hernia
e) Direct inguinal hernia
39. A 25 years old man is awakened during night very severe pain in his right loin. He notices bright blood in his urine. Next morning he comes to you- you found him a febrile and plain X ray shows calcium oxalate stone in his bladder. WOF you will advice —
a) Not to take calcium containing food
b) Avoid red meat
c) Avoid all kind of drinks, tea, coffee
40. Most common cause of death in severe burns, in Australia is?
a) Irreversible shock
c) Respiratory failure due to respiratory tract burns
d) Unable to maintain positive nitrogen balance
41.All of the following cause acute pancreatitis,Except–
a) Alcohol ( Note: Dr. Susan-GET SMASHED)
b) Mumps virus infection 1. gall stones
c) Diabetes Mellitus 2.ethanol
d) Gall stone 3.trauma
e) Pancreatic islet cell tumour 4.steroids 5.mumps
7.autoimmune 8.scorpion venom
9.hyperlipidaemia 10.ERCP 11.DM/drugs: azathioprine,pentamdine
42. When is the best time to administer prophylactic antibiotics?
a) 1 day before operation
b) 1 hour before operation
c) At the time of incision
d) After the infection
43. A female pt. Complaints of fullness fat indigestion after fatly meals. In an ultrasound stones seen in gallbladder, but there is no sepsis. After surgery no stone left in the gall bladder and free of symptoms for few weeks, then symptoms recur. What is the explanation–
a) Pancreatitis after cholecystitis
b) Stone was left in CBD
c) It is a result of removal of gall bladder-Fat indigestion
d) Gall stones were not her symptoms
e) Cystic duct stump syndrome
f) Recurrence of stone formation after cholecyctectomy
44. A middle aged female complaints of morning diarrhoea and cramps. On examination there are no remarkable findings. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Irritable bowel disease
b) Ca Colon
c) Crohns disease
d) Ulcerative colitis
45.A patient came with weakness in extension of hand and pronation.On examination there is no wasting of hand muscles.Flexion normal, Biceps & Triceps reflexes also normal.No Brachioradialis jerk.Where is the lesion?
a) Median nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Ulner nerve
d) Nerve to Posterior interoseus
e) Nerve to Anterior interoseus
1. A couple came to your GP surgery to know about the mode of inheritance/number of incidence of cystic fibrosis in the population. Your answer will be –
a) 1 in 2
b) 1 in 4- mode of inheritance
c) 1 in 25
d) 1 in 100
e) 1 in 2500- number of incidence
2. A 15 months old child was found with ambiguous genitalia, while in cerotype analysis 46xy was diagnosed. WOF is the next appropriate IX ?
a) X- ray ( Kumar & C-1024/1054 )
b) 17 hydroxyprogesterone—increased in Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
c) CT Scan
d) US of pelvic region
e) Testosterone level
3. An 8-year-old boy presents with photophobia, irritability & neck stiffness. Lumbar puncture findings show 50 neutrophils, 100 lymphocytes, proteins normal, glucose normal. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Tuberculosis meningitis
b) H. influenza
c) Echo virus
d) E. Coli
e) HSV encephalitis
4. A 5 month old baby unwell for a week is noticed by his parents to have episodes of leaning forward and shaking his arms. His parents are concerned, because he is not responding as he used to. What is the likely cause?
a) Infantile spasm
b) Febrile seizures
c) Breath holding spells
d) Infantile myoclonic seizures
e) Petit mal epilepsy
5. A 2 month old child has strawberry naevus on its back between the scapulae, 2 cm in size. What is the most appropriate management?
b) Lase therapy
d) Injection of a sclerosing agent
e) Simple excision
6. A child with perorbital oedema and anararca, BP is normal. All of the following are true, except?
a) Steroids are useful in treatment
b) Focal glomerulonephrits is the commonest cause
c) Proteinuria more than 3 grams/day is usual
d) This is commonest between 1 and 4 years of age
7. A fully breast feed baby, from a mother on a healthy, balanced diet, can have deficiency of which vitamin?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B complex
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin K
8. You can see an infant with subdural haematoma, bruising and multiple subperiosteal sclerosing zones on x-ray of the limbs. What do you first think of?
b) Vitamin C deficiency
c) Pagets disease
d) Non accidental injury
9. What is true about phenylketonuria inheritance?
a) Only boys are affected
b) Only girls are affected
c) 1 in 2 chance of any sex being affected
d) 1 in 4 chance of any sex being affected
10. An 8-week-old baby presents with unilateral sticky eye. Similar episode before was treated with antibiotics for 3 days and resolved. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Gonococcal conjunctivitis
b) Allergic conjunctivitis
c) Inadequate antibiotic treatment
d) Decreased Ig A in the tears
e) Blocked naso-lacrimal duct
11. A neonate was born at full term with a birth weight of 1500 grams, was jittery on handling noticed to have cyanosis on the hands & feet. The infant had normal temparature; respiratory rate 40/min and lung & heart were normal on examination. The neonate has been given oxygen. Which of following is your step in management?
a) Reassure the infants mother and check the infant later
b) Check blood calcium
c) Give high concentration oxygen via mask
d) Take blood sample for blood sugar test
e) Take blood for full blood examination
12. A child was recently vaccinated for polio, now presents with 1-week history of fever, flaccid paralysis of both lower limbs with no reflexes. The most likely diagnosis is?
a) Infection with wild poliomyelitis
b) Complication of the polio vaccine
c) Gullian Barre syndrome
d) UMN lesion
e) Acute polyneuropathy
13. Which of the following is the least likely cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children?
a) Cows milk
d) Coeliac disease
e) Multiple pregnancy (e.g. Twins)
14. A baby delivered by normal vaginal delivery, is well after birth. On the 4th day, the baby is found collapsed in the cot, breathless and floppy. On examination there are no murmurs. Possible cause could be–
c) TGA with VSD
d) Pulmonary stenosis
e) L. Ventricular Hypertrophy
15.A 9-day-old baby with projective vomiting and dehydration with K 7.1, Na 125, Cl 80, & HCO3 20. What is your diagnosis:
a) Pyloric stenosis
e) Congenital adrenal hypertrophy
16. A child with profuse diarrhoea for 5 days develops convulsions. Which of the following blood test results would most likely cause this convulsion?
a) K 2.2
b) K 6.5
c) Na 132
d) Na 156
e) Cl 100
17. A 37-year-old female gives birth to her 2nd child. At the 10th day the child becomes jaundiced. His mother tells the doctor that her first child had jaundice after birth and then developed bilateral cataract after the jaundice. What is the diagnosis?
a) Congenital rubella
b) Neonatal hepatitis
c) Diabetes Mellitus
18. A child has trouble seeing the black board at school, but no problems when using the computer. His vision is improved with pinhole test. What is your diagnosis?
19. A child with headache and morning vomiting, ataxia and nystagmus for 6 weeks. His school had a chicken pox 2 weeks ago. He has a family history migraine. What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) Varicella cerebellitis
c) Infratentorial Tumour
d) Friedrich’s ataxia
20.In Down’s syndrome, aside from the cardiac complications, all of the following are associated with Down’s syndrome, except-
a) Acute leukaemia
d) Vesicoureteric reflux
f) Alzheirmer’s disease
21. A 15-month-old child is brought to you by his parents. He was born at 36 weeks by normal vaginal delivery. At 8 months a mother child health center test for hearing was done, which was normal. The parents say that he babbles, but does not speak 2-3 word phrases yet. On physical examination, the child appears normal. What will you do?
a) Reassure the parents that this is a normal variant
b) Reassess at 18 months
c) Repeat mother child test for hearing
d) Arrange for audiometry testing
e) Rt. Orchidopexy
22. A mother notices a lump in the right groin of her 2-year-old son, which disappeared after a few hours. Despite a thorough examination you are unable to discover anything. The most appropriate management would be?
a) reassurance & send home
b) Admission into hospital for surgery
c) Request the mother to bring the child to you immediately when the lump reappears again
d) Review after 1 week
23. An 8-year-old boy was stung by a bee. He had difficulty breathing and facial oedema. What is the best treatment?
a) Adrenalin 1:1000 IM/SC
b) Adrenaline I/V
c) Antihistamine iv
d) Hydrocortisone iv
e) Intravenous fluids
24. A child has tenderness & pain at upper tibia of the left leg and swelling of the knee which is warm. He is febrile(39 degrees Celsius) and gets pain at 30 degrees flexion. What is your diagnosis?
c) Septic arthritis
d) Fracture tibia
e) Irritable hip (Transient synovitis)
25. A 2-year-old child presents with a clean superficial laceration on the forehead. The child has never been immunized. What is the most appropriate management?
a) Give antibiotics
b) Tetanus Toxoid
c) Tetanus Immunoglobin
d) DTP vaccination
e) Reassure & send home
26. The commonest cause of hip pain in a 3-yearold child?
a) Transient synovitis
b) Perthes disease
c) Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
27. A 2-week-old baby gained 200 grams/week since birth. The mother complaints that the child vomits milk soon after feeding, otherwise okey. What will you do?
a) Reduce the time between feeds
b) Shorten the duration of feeding
c) Give water before feeding with milk
e) Urine microscopy
28. A child was born premature(30 weeks gestation), via vaginal delivery. APGAR 5 at 1 min. & 8 at 5 min. At 18 months, the child is brought by the mother with moderate mental retardation. Which family history would be likely cause of the mental retardation?
a) Uncle has mental retardation
b) Sister has febrile convulsions
c) Mother has 2 café au lait spots
d) Father is an alcoholic
e) Paternal grandmother has hypothyroidism
29. A 4-year-old child presents with sudden onset of cough, unilateral wheeze and decreased respiratory movement on one side. There is no family history of atopy. What is the most appropriate management?
a) Chest X ray
b) Full blood examination
c) CT of chest
e) Inspiratory & expiratory chest X ray
30. An obese 8 yrs. Old boy came to you. O/E his weight was 48 kg, which is more than 98th percentile and the height was 140 cm, which is more than 90th percentile, otherwise normal. WOF is correct in relation to this boy—
a) Advanced bone age
b) Increased blood sugar level
e) Primary hyperaldesteronism
31.A baby is born a normal full term delivery. On examination of the newborn, which of the following may normally be seen?
a) Breast enlargement in male infants
b) Enlarged clitoris in female infants
c) Fusion of labia
d) Enlarge lever more than 5 cm and palpable
e) Cleft plate
32. A mother brings her baby who is babbling and squeaking, is able to hold his head, move from prone to supine position, is able to sit up unsupported, can reach for objects and when supported, can stand and bounce. What is the possible age of this child?
a) 5 weeks
b) 2 weeks
c) 7 months
d) 10 months
e) 12 months
33. During 12 weeks of pregnancy Ultrasound shows nuchal thickness of the fetus. Keriotype also done. Now your advice should be—
a)Terminate the pregnancy at 12 week
b)Repeat Keriotype test
c)Serum fetoprotein test at second trimester
d)Full blood test
34.After a difficult forceps delivery, it is noticed that the baby hangs his arm to the side, and cannot move it. What is the likely cause?
a) Fracture humerus
b) Erbs palsy
35. Six week old child initially was normal but after 3 wks she was not sucking milk. She appeared as a floppy child, which was progressively getting worse. WOF is your diagnosis–
b) Werdnig-hoffman disease(spinal muscular atrophy)
c) Cerebral pulsy
d) Myasthenia gravis
36. A 6 week old infant vomiting intermittently since birth. She looks thin, not gaining weight. No abnormality on physical examination. What is your Dx :
a) cystic fibrosis
b) pyloric stenosis
c) subdural haematoma
d) phenyl ketonuria
1. While doing hysterectomy in lithotomy position WOF nerve is prone to injury—
a) Pudendal nerve
b) Sciatic nerve
c) Common peroneal nerve
2. A woman is challenged with combined oestrogen & progesterone, but does not get withdrawal bleeding. Which organ is most likely to be affected?
e) Fallopian tubes
3. The most appropriate OCP for a 24-year-old woman taking phenytoin is?
a) Microgynon 30
b) Microgynon 50
c) Diane 35
e) Oestrogen 85 micrograms
4. A 20-year-old female presents to you with amenorrhoea. On ultrasound, a cyst(1.8 x 1.3 x 1.0 cm) is found on the right overy. What is the most appropriate management?
a) Laproscopy to find cytology
b) Repeat ultrasound in 4 weeks time
c) Do nothing
5. Regarding oxytocin, which of the following is true?
a) Has an anitdiurectic effect
b) It is a steroid
c) It is produced by the posterior pituitary
d) It has an action on most of the involuntary muscles
e) It causes milk production
6. A female, 17 weeks pregnant, has acute right iliac fossa pain. Which of the following is the least likely cause of the pain?
b) Red degeneration of a fibroid
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Acute appendicitis
e) Torsion of an ovarian cyst
7. Depo provera can cause all the following, except?
a) Mild hypertension
b) Amenorrhoea after the 3rd injection
c) Fertility problems for 6-12 months after stopping the treatment
d) Menstrual irregularities
e) Weight gain
8. An 8-week gestation primigravida, presented with slight vaginal bleeding. You will do an ultrasound examination for all of the following, except?
a) To see if the sac is within the uterus or not
b) To see if the foetus is alive or dead
c) To check for any congenital anomalies
d) To look for a clot inside the uterus
e) To look for the position of the placenta
9. A 25-year-old female presents with galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea, CT scan shows the presence of pituitary adenoma, 3 mm in diameter, 1.6 mm from the optic chiasma, with no visual disturbances. Prolactin level is high(4250). What is the most appropriate management?
a) Trans-sphenoidal surgery
10. A primigravida, 14 weeks gestation, is found to have proteinuria(+++), BP 150/95 mmHg and swelling. What is true?
a) She has pre-eclampsia(24 wks)
b) She has UTI
c) She will not be carry on with the pregnancy
d) Renal hypertension
e) Pre-existing renal disease
11. In a postmenopausal woman, what is the least likely cause of greenish foul smelling vaginal discharge?
a) Trichomonas vaginalis- long standing cases discharge is greenish and frothy
b) Gardnerella vaginalis – strong fishy smell, grayish discharge
c) Chlamydia – may be mucopurulent
d) Foreign body
e) Cervical carcinoma
12. what is true regarding carpal tunnel syndrome in pregnancy?
a) Relieved by use of splint with hand in extended position
b) Causes severe pain in the thenar eminence position
c) Rarely requires surgery
d) Diuretics should be given
e) Becomes better as gestation progresses
13. A woman comes to you 2 years after her menopause asking for something to relieve her postmenopausal syndromes. You decide to give her combined HRT. You explain to her that all of the following are the effects of progesterone, except?
a) She will have pre-menstrual like symptoms
b) She will have withdrawal bleeding every month
c) Progesterone will oppose the action of oestrogen on the endometrium
d) Progesterone will potentiate the action of oestrogen in increasing HDL
e) Progesterone will augment the action of oestrogen for prevention of osteoporosis
14. Which of the following is not true, for a woman having antenatal care?
a) Presence of Anti-Rho means that the baby can have permanent heart block
b) A platelet count of 100000 is a risk for developing intracranial bleed in the infant
c) The presence of ANA could cause growth retardation of the foetus
15. Which of the following occurs in pregnancy by progesterone?
a) No renal changes
b) Dilatation of the ureters & calyces
c) Dilatation of the calyces only
d) Dilatation of the ureter only
e) Reduce incidence of infection
16. Which of the following CTG patterns indicates foetal distress?
a) Acceleration with foetal movements
b) Early decelerations with uterine contractions
c) Decelerations when the foetus is sleeping
d) Accelerations on sound stimulation
e) A beat to beat variability< 5 beats/min
17. Regarding administration of anti-D gamma globulin in Rh -ve women, which of the following is true?
a) It is a form of active immunization
b) Administration in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy has been shown to decrease autoimmunization in the mother
c) It increase the risk of HIV transmission
d) It should be given within 24 hours of the delivery-2nd
e) It is not necessary to give it in cases of ABO incompatibility-1st
18. A young woman, pregnant for 14 weeks, uterine size corresponding to 16 weeks, now presents with bleeding and passing out grape like material through a dilated cervix. Which of the following is the best follow up?
a) weekly monitoring of urine HCG, until it comes to normal level
c) Chest X ray for metastasis
d) Check placenta for signs of malignancy
e) Observation & reassurance
19. A 32-years woman became pregnant. She had 5 pregnancies before, of which she lost 3 spontaneously between 8-10 weeks & 2 were stopped by intervention at 12 weeks. What is the most likely cause?
a) Cervical incompetence
b) Chromosomal abnormalities
c) Hormonal imbalance
d) Ovarian tumor
e) Valvo vaginitis
20. All of the following are true about neural tube defect, except?
a) Decrease in alpha fetoprotein
c) Folic acid prophylaxis can decrease the risk of neural tube defects
d) There is a 4% chance of neural tube defect in the 2nd pregnancy
e) Can be detected by amnio centesis
21. A 19-year old primigravida, 38 weeks gestation, with hyper-reflexia, hypertention and oedema, might be expected to have elevated blood levels of all of the following, except?
b) Uric acid
22. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for OCP use?
a) Migraine with hemiplegic aura
c) Varicose veins
d) Diabetes mellitus
e) Gall bladder disease
23. All of the following are used in dysmennorhoea, except?
a) D & C
c) Mefnamic acid
24. A 62-years-old female complaints of bleeding per vagina. After examination and investigation, endometrial hyperplasia was found and a solid mass (5 cm in diameter) was found in one of the ovaries. Possible diagnosis is?
b) Ovarian ca
d) Granulosa cell tumor
25. A pregnant woman, 34 weeks-gestational age, presents with antepartum haemorrhage. You diagnose abruptio placenta. All of the following are possibly seen, except?
a) Tense & tender uterus
b) BP of 180/110 mmHg
c) Shock out of proportion with the bleeding
d) Foetal head mobile above the pelvic brim
e) Dead foetus
26. OCP’s mainly affect which site?
e) Cervical mucous
27. On clinical examination, how do you differentiate an ovarian tumor from ascitis?
a) Dullness in the periphery & central tympanetic note, on percussion
b) Tympanetic note in the periphery & central dullness, on percussion
c) Shifting dullness
d) Decreased bowel sounds
e) Fluid thrill
28. A 26-years old primi, 152 cm tall, with vertex presentation, head at 0 station, cervix effaced completely and dilated to 4 cm, with intact membranes at 37 weeks. What is the most approprate management?
a) Lower segment caesarean section
b) Oxytocin to induce labour
c) Ultrasound to detect foetal abnormalities
d) X-ray pelvimetry
e) Trial labour
29. A 24-year old woman came with secondary amenorrhoea & was diagnosed to have Poly Cystic Ovarian Syndrome. WOF is true about her conditions–
( Note: In PCO
a) Immediate laparoscopic removal of cysts Testosteronne-increase LH:FSH-increase
b) FSH:LH ratio will be 3:1 LH-increase Insuline-increase)
c) Increase androstenedione – also Testosterone LJ-223
d) 17-hydroxy Progesterone will be normal
e) USG will show echo density over the affected part of the ovaries–Echofree
30. In a twin pregnancy, after delivery of the first twin, you do all of the following, except?
a) Vaginal examination
b) External version if the second twin is breech
c) Oxytocin infusion if contractions don’t start
d) Check foetal heart rate
e) Check lie of the second twin
31.Regarding uterine rupture after previous Lower segment Ceasarian Section WOF is most likely indication?
a) Incidense is increased by 5%
b) Increase with prostaglandin induction
c) Increase with oxytocin augmentation
32. Which of the following cancer is most common to metastasize to bone ?
a) Prostate Cancer [ Murtagh-GP:247 B-P-L: Breast-Prostate-Lung]
b) Stomach Cancer
c) Breast Cancer
d) Lung Cancer
e) Cerebral Cancer
33. Regarding contraception, all of the following are correct except-
a) It is absolutely contraindicated in women with migrainous aura [ GP-961]
b) It should not be prescribed for a patient with DVT
c) If patient is on 20 microgram there is no need to stop pre-operatively
d) 50 microgram should only be started if 30 microgram causes irregular bleeding
34. A 26 yrs old young lady with 10 weeks of amenorrhoea. WOF test will affect her management after the diagnosis of her pregnancy?
a) Varicella Antibody
c) Glucose Challenge test
35. WOF is not true regarding neural tube defects-
a) Decrease alpha feto protein
b) Folate intake can decrease the incidence
c) Can be detected by amniocentesis
d) Socioeconomic factor is an important factor
1. While shopping in a shopping center a lady found that everything is moving around her. At that time she felt herself separated from this world. These happened several occasions in the past. In one occasion this happened when she was talking with her relatives and uttered some un-recognizable words, which could not understood by them. WOF is next appropriate step—
a) talk to her relatives
b) CT scan of head
c) MRI of Brain
d) Measure BP in lying and standing position
2. A youngman was found by his parents agitated at night in his room. They told you that their son did not sleep for last 3 nights and also has not taken food for 3 days. He used cannabis and he is on “lithium”. The young man told you that he was complying with lithium prescribe by the doctor. O/E you found tremor, agitation, arrythmias and ataxia. WOF is your next step—-
a) Electrolyte estimation
b) Urine test
c) Serum lithium level estimation
3. About “Core group” to help alcoholics and addicts. WOF is correct—
a) Ask opinion and help from non-professionals
b) Co-operation and skill should be increased among members of the group.
4. Schizophrenic patient has good prognosis if they had—
a) Prolong onset
b) Affected symptom
c) Family history
d) If all the relative help in psychotherapy
5. A 60-year-old with Wernicke’s encephalopathy present to casualty. On examination he is found to be hypoglycaemic, has nystagmus, drinks 6gm alcohol per day. What is your initial management?
a) Normal saline (0.9%) & dextrose solution
b) Glucagon iv
c) 50% dextrose iv
d) Intravenous thiamine followed by dextrose solution
e) Insuline & dextrose iv
6. A man is brought to the hospital by the police. How will you different whether he has schizophrenia or delirium?
a) Fluctuating level of consciousness
7. A 33-year-old lady comes to see you at your practice with complaints of insomnia. In the last 2 months she has lost 2 Kgs. She has 3 children aged 10,7& 4 yrs. In the past few months she doesn’t feel as close she used to, to her husband. She feels more distant from him. They have been living in a rented house for the last 10 yrs or so and have not been able to go for a holiday due to financial difficulties. She also complains of heavy periods. You did a FBC (full blood count), thyroid hormone levels, etc and all came out within normal range. Physical examination was unremarkable. What is your next step in management for this woman?
a) Refer to gynecologist
b) Refer to psychiatrist
c) Refer to marriage counselor
d) Interview husband
e) Suggest that she takes a holiday
8. Which of the following is reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase?
9. Anorexia Nervosa will have all except?
a) Flight of ideas
c) Lanugo hair
d) Mainly seen in females
10. The Mental health Act was introduced approximately 20 years ago. Of the following, which is true?
a) It is the same in all States & Territories in Australia
b) It can save lives
c) It takes away the individuals freedom
d) It can be involuntarily imposed on everyone
e) It needs six people to impose it
11. The parents of an adopted girl, who has been diagnosed as schizophrenic, have come to consult you about their own biological child. They inquire about the possibility of schizophrenia developing in their child. You should tell them?
b) Less than 2%
12. In which of the following conditions is there de’ja’vu?
a) Occipital lobe tumour
b) Temporal lobe tumour
c) Frontal lobe tumour
d) Raised intracranial pressure
e) Korsakoff’s syndrome
13. A young woman who is an accountant in a bank, after experiencing bank robbery in which she was taken as a hostage for several hours. After 3-4 weeks she returned to work. What should you expect on her?
a) Erotic memories of the event
b) A brief psychotic reaction
c) Visual Hallucination of the event
d) Irritability and outbursts of anger
14. A 36 years old engineer is due to give an speech soon and is reluctant to be exposed to people. At the same time, he does not want to sign cheques or write anything in public. He also thinks his boss is controlling what he is doing although he knows that there is no motive for that because he is a very good worker. He realizes there is no reason to act this way. Lately he has been avoiding to go to the canteen with his mates and takes alcohol to cope with the situation. What he is suffering from—
a) Social phobia
c) Antisocial personality disorder
d) Panic disorder
e) Paranoid disorder
15. What is incorrect concerning Gille de la Tourette syndrome?
a) Associated with tics
b) Patient is not distressed by the tics
c) Patient utters obscene words in less than 10% of cases
16. WOF is most likely associated with Bulimia?
b) Induced vomiting
d) Sexual disorder
e) Disturbed body image
17. A person with hypnologic hallucinations:
a) A feeling of insects crawling over the skin
b) Usually occurs at the beginning of sleep
c) Seen in schizophrenic patient
d) Seen in amphetamine entoxication
e) Seen with cannabis use
18. All the following can cause serotonin syndrome except?
b) L Tryptophan
c) Clonazepam (benzodiazepine)
19. Defense mechanism have been classified as mature andimmature. Which of the following is an immature defense mechanism?
20. Concrete interpretation of a proverb is characteristic of?
d) Delusional disorder
21. Bulimia nervosa
b) Never occur in male
c) Associated with depression
22. Contraindication to tricyclic therapy:
e) Antipsychotic drug
23. Halucination of miniature object or animal crawling occurs in
b) Generalized Epilepsy
c) Delirium Tremens
24. Which of the following would give a better prognosis in Schizophrenia?
a) No precipitating features
b) Abrupt onset
c) Schizoid personality
d) Drug abuse
e) With affective symptoms
25. A 21 yrs old young girl was brought to you by her parents. She tells you that her friends are putting message in her brain trying to disturb her. Today when she has appeared in the tutorial class they tried to lock her thought and tried to influence her. WOF is your next step?
a) CT scan
e) Full blood test
26. WOF is formal thought disorder?
a) Thought echoing
b) Over inclusiveness
e) All of the above
27. Which of the following is correct regarding “Baby Blues”?
a) Is present in more than 50% of women
b) Postpartum blues lasts for at least 3 months
c) Predisposes to postpartum psychosis
d) She requires antipsychotic medication
e) She requires ECT
28. A lonely man was found to be semiconscious and had bilateral six nerve palsy. Likely diagnosis is—
a) Alcoholic toxicity
b) Delirium tremen
c) Wemicke’s encephalopathy
29. Panic disorder: Exept—
a) Is equally frequent in men & women
b) Patient should avoid trigger factors
c) Starts in the 20’s
30. A 28-years old male presents with grandiose beliefs of his own importance, over concern for his appearance and extreme sensitivity to others criticism. He likewise has unrealistic fantasies of unlimited success, capabilities and power. He also lacks empathy and uses other people for his own benefit. This history is suggestive of what type of personality?
a) Schizotypal personality
b) Antisocial personality
c) Narcissistic personality
d) Borderline personality